Dale,
DaleSpam said:
Hi andrewr,
I went through your previous post looking to find where the factor of 2 was. I quickly found this.The momentum of a single photon is p=E/c. The reason that the momentum transferred is twice that is because the photon bounces back with almost the same momentum but in the opposite direction, a change of ~2p.
I know you didn't see this before you wrote.
andrewr said:
Also, the units of momentum for the first photon are kg*m/s, not just m/s, and that includes the double momentum for reflection.[/color]
The general formula ought to have read: E(mirror) = 0.5 * Eph**2 / (m0*c**2)
The energy transferred is a non-linear function of the energy of the photon.
DaleSpam said:
However, this factor of 2 was not the cause of the difference that you found between the two methods of calculating Δf. Although your value for p was wrong it appears that you didn't use it anywhere else so the error did not propagate. I went carefully through the remainder of your numbers and they are all correct, Eph, v, KE(mirror), and Δf (energy).
The reason is that I meant the momentum of a single reflected photon.
It took me a long time to spot the error because I was looking for a factor of 2. However, the actual problem was just in the formula for the Doppler shift. You had:
Δf=((c - v)/(c + v) - 1)*f0
My formula IS the correct formula for Doppler shift of a REFLECTED photon.
but the correct formula is:
Δf=(sqrt((c - v)/(c + v)) - 1)*f0
Sorry, that is the change of frames (one way -- not reflected) Doppler shift.
It does not include reflection.
There are TWO doppler shifts in a reflection. Since Doppler shift is multiplicative, you must square the relativistic Doppler shift. This was dealt with and derived at the start of the thread. It is also well known:
eg: http://www.physast.uga.edu/ask_phys_q&a_old.html
* When a policeman measures your speed using radar he is using the Doppler effect to do so. Suppose that the policeman is at rest and you are speeding by. The radar leaves the police car and you receive a Doppler shifted frequency because you are a moving observer. Then you reflect the radar back to him so you become a moving source and there is a Doppler effect again. So this reflection becomes a double Doppler effect.[/color] The policeman now compares the wavelengths of the original radar and that reflected back from you to determine your speed.
With the correct formula for the Doppler shift there is agreement between the two different methods of calculating Δf. So again, there is no discrepancy between any of the different approaches and energy is always correctly conserved.
I don't see that. I see that you have substituted half the formula.
DaleSpam said:
He uses it explicitly in the title of the section.
I agree completely. One way of expressing this mathematically is nxE=0, as I said all along.Although
Good; Even though the normal is NOT used in the mathematics -- which triggered my frustration upon seeing the form being unable to be more than my boundary conditions. I concede that your notation with the normal is equivalent to the engineering equations in my book -- When the adrenaline kicked in, I lost concentration -- it is fairly easy to see which post that started at. But, none the less -- my incoherent reasoning had a kernel.
As I noted, that if your conditions were correct...then this follows:[/color]
It still looks to me that your conditions, therefore -- are incomplete -- for a moving target. eg: My boundary conditions were incomplete, as taught by my prof. and yours are equivalent? (I'll demonstrate).
If they are not identical to what my professor claimed, you can expand the reasoning. These boundary conditions are where I suspect the problem lay when I began the thread.
Since the boundary conditions you quote are the same as for a stationary target -- (Correct?) -- then you can't get an answer different from a stationary target with the exception of the boundary condition being at x=vt;
In my original analysis of the sinewave problem, it is abundantly clear that the amplitude does not change -- just as it would not in a stationary conductor.
One can say "A*cos( ωt - ω/c * x ) + B*cos( ωt - ω/c * x + π) = 0" at x=vt or at x=const, and the solution of the equation will produce the same thing.
(The cos I am taking as the E field, the sin would be the H. I take it, when you use B fields you mean -- B = μ0 * H; so these are scalar multiples of each other.
The forward and reverse waves have the same amplitude: A=B -- only the frequency changes.
Now, that isn't correct -- as power is created in such a scenario.
But -- getting the RIGHT answer is not what I am after so much as understanding HOW to get it from Μaxwell's equations -- eg: how other people do it.
I have a limit approach, but that essentially causes some unphysical results which have the right power values.
I am looking for the standard way to solve it. I do not understand what Einstein does, as he appears to add a term which has no physical meaning to me in his derivation... in the 1905 document.
There is the issue of Hall effect, I suppose, as the H field would act differently on moving electrons and protons. That is something I have never seen tried in my engineering texts...
The E-field can be discontinuous wherever there is a charge. For a perfect conductor all charge resides on the surface of the conductor and therefore even differentially just outside the conductor you can have an E-field despite the fact that there is no E-field inside the conductor. That E-field will be purely normal to the surface and will thus have no tangential component.
It still cancels to exactly zero on the boundary, does it not? (at least INSIDE the conductor) -- If so -- how do you get a reverse propagating wave with a different amplitude when using a square wave? (same argument as a sine wave above).
The magnitude of the forward propagating wave and the inverted magnitude of the reverse propagating wave must add up to zero at the conducting boundary[/color].
A step discontinuity to a voltage/E-field would appear to induce infinite current if there were no (in the limit) distance between it and the short.
That is what I meant about continuity -- the poor description of that continuity not withstanding.
My prof states that on a transmission line, the voltage at a boundary (corresponds to E) must be continuous at that point.
Look andrewr. You don't like me, I get that. For some reason I make you anxious. But that does not mean I am wrong.
You have misinterpreted what I have said multiple times and been insulting (continuing to push when I asked you to stop) when the tables were turned. Yes, I don't like you.
There is simply no paradox here, all the energy is accounted for whichever way you work the problem except when you make a mistake such as ignoring the acceleration of the mirror,
Case in point, the original problem defined[/color] no acceleration -- which you originally overlooked. Will you repeat a bad argument?
ignoring the force that keeps the mirror from accelerating, or using the wrong formula. We can keep playing "Where's Waldo" with new mistakes, but that isn't going to change anything. The conservation of energy is a fundamental feature of the laws of special relativity and electromagnetism, so if you apply those laws correctly to any possible scenario you will always find energy is conserved. If you do not find energy conserved then you are 100% guaranteed to have made a mistake.
Please re-read the thread. I made it quite clear to you MULTIPLE times that I believe energy is conserved on average. The free floating mirror problem was a concession -- the disagreement I found was not the original issue. But, since I stumbled across it -- being careful -- I figure we might as well look at it. ESPECIALLY since it isn't relativistic, and can be verified two ways.
In my FIRST post to you I spoke of power and time equating to conservation.
If you don't want to work the problem all the way through, you are welcome to leave.
I fully expect an error of some sort to appear on my part. That was in the original part of the thread. So, I am not fighting you over a real or "average" violation.
Also, 300MHz equates to 1 METER. That is MACROSCOPIC -- and there are waves in the 30CM range that you can actually detect the shape of with a small dipole antenna and a light bulb. This isn't affected appreciably by Heisenburg -- but if it were, you would be actually agreeing that a photon may have a bit more or less energy than the frequency would imply. One of my original answers. ONE THING FOR CERTAIN -- THEY ARE NOT SQUARE WAVES.
An antenna acts as a coherent light source emitter -- just as if a laser were in operation. The wavelength and time at 300MHz are long enough that the E-field can be viewed on an oscilloscope. There are many other inconsistencies that I find in our conversation.
Here, as a nicety -- let me throw out a thought -- the time of collision of the photon at 300MHz is a macroscopic 3ns. I can watch that on an oscilloscope screen.
Therefore, there will be time for acceleration to occur between the first and second halves of the wave. That would mean that the photon hitting the boundary will experience different amounts of shift vs. time. That might have a small effect -- and Einstein seems to ignore that possibility. It may not be big enough -- but it is something to check.