The Union of Two Open Sets is Open

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the proof that the union of two open sets is itself an open set. Participants explore the definitions and implications of open sets in the context of topology, examining the validity of various arguments and proofs related to this concept.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant argues that the initial proof only shows that A1 ∪ A2 contains an open set, not that it is open itself.
  • Another participant asserts that the argument is valid for every x in A1 ∪ A2, stating that for each x, there exists an open ball contained in the union, which aligns with the definition of an open set.
  • A different participant reiterates the proof structure, emphasizing that for any x in A1 or A2, an open ball can be found that is contained in A1 ∪ A2, thus supporting the claim that the union is open.
  • One participant expresses a misunderstanding about the relationship between A1 and A2, suggesting that they initially thought elements from A2 could close A1, but later acknowledges that this concern is not relevant to the proof of openness.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no clear consensus on the sufficiency of the initial proof, with some participants questioning its completeness while others defend it based on the definition of open sets. The discussion reflects multiple viewpoints on the validity of the arguments presented.

Contextual Notes

Some participants point out that the proof may be incomplete or not fully articulated, indicating that assumptions about the relationship between the sets A1 and A2 could affect the interpretation of the proof.

G-X
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Let [Math]x ∈ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] then [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math] or [Math]x ∈ A2[/Math]

If [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math], as A1 is open, there exists an r > 0 such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] and thus B(x,r) is an open set.

Therefore [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set.

How does this prove that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set. It just proved that [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] contains an open set; not that the entire set will be open? This is very similar to the statement: An open subset of R is a subset E of R such that for every x in E there exists ϵ > 0 such that Bϵ(x) is contained in E.
 
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The point is that the argument is valid for every $x\in A_1\cup A_2$.

If $C = A_1\cup A_2$, we have proved that, for every $x\in C$, there is an open ball $B(x,r)\subset C$ (where $r>0$ depends on $x$). That is precisely the definition of an open set.
 
G-X said:
If [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math], as A1 is open, there exists an r > 0 such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math] and thus B(x,r) is an open set.

Therefore [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set.

Hi G-X, welcome to MHB!As castor28's pointed out, it's about the definition of an open set, which he effectively quoted.Additionally that proof is not entirely correct and it is incomplete.
It should be for instance:

If [Math]x ∈ A1[/Math], as $A1$ is open, there exists an $r > 0$ such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1[/Math] (from the definition of an open set), which implies that [Math]B(x,r)⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math].
If [Math]x ∈ A2[/Math], as $A2$ is open, there exists an $r > 0$ such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A2⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math].
Therefore for all [Math]x ∈ A1∪ A2[/Math], there exists an $r > 0$ such that [Math]B(x,r) ⊂ A1 ∪ A2[/Math].

Thus [Math]A1 ∪ A2[/Math] is an open set.
 
I see, I think I had the misunderstanding that something from A2 might close A1.

But I don't think that is an issue you technically need to wrap your head around.

Because the definition states: We define a set U to be open if for each point x in U there exists an open ball B centered at x contained in U.

So, essentially looping over A1, A2 - making the reference that open balls exist at each of these points then all points in A1 ∪ A2 have open balls contained in the union thus by the definition it must be open.
 
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