Undergrad Time dependent perturbation theory

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The discussion centers on time-dependent perturbation theory, specifically the role of a constant perturbation in transition probabilities. The matrix element < f | H | i > indicates that if H is a constant, it can be factored out, leading to H < f | i >, which equals zero due to the orthonormality of the states. This implies that a constant perturbation does not change the state, merely adding a phase factor to all states in the Schrödinger picture. The analogy to classical mechanics is drawn, where adding a constant term to the Hamiltonian does not alter the equations of motion. Overall, the understanding is that a constant perturbation has no effect on state transitions.
dyn
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Hi.
I have been looking at some notes for time dependent perturbation theory. The equation for the transition probability involves the matrix element < f | H | i > where f is the final state , i is the initial state and H is the perturbation switched on at t=0. If H is a constant , ie. just a number then it can be taken outside the bracket leaving H < f | i > but the final and initial states are orthonormal meaning the bracket is zero for all transitions. So a constant perturbation produces no change in state ?
Have i got all this right ? If not , where am i going wrong ?
Thanks
 
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dyn said:
Hi.
I have been looking at some notes for time dependent perturbation theory. The equation for the transition probability involves the matrix element < f | H | i > where f is the final state , i is the initial state and H is the perturbation switched on at t=0. If H is a constant , ie. just a number then it can be taken outside the bracket leaving H < f | i > but the final and initial states are orthonormal meaning the bracket is zero for all transitions. So a constant perturbation produces no change in state ?
Have i got all this right ? If not , where am i going wrong ?
Thanks
Looks right to me.
 
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Sure, if ##\hat{H}=h_0 \hat{1}##, ##h_0=\text{const} \in \mathbb{R}##, it doesn't do anything in the time evolution, just adding a phase factor ##\exp(-\mathrm{i} h_0 t)## to all states (in the Schrödinger picture), but that means indeed it doesn't do anything to the state at all. That's as in classical mechanics: Adding a constant term to the Hamiltonian doesn't change the equations of motion (Hamilton's canonical equations).
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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