In my course notes for atomic physics, looking at time independent perturbation for the non-degenerate case, we have the following:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

http://i.imgur.com/ao4ughk.png

However I am confused about the equation 5.1.6. We know that < phi n | phi m > = 0 for n =/= m, so shouldn't this mean that < phi n | V | phi m > = 0 as well? Would someone be able to explain why this is not the case? I feel like I must be missing some important aspect of Dirac notation here.

Thanks

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Time independent perturbation theory

Loading...

Similar Threads - independent perturbation theory | Date |
---|---|

Question regarding time independent perturbation theory | Feb 4, 2015 |

Why transition rate independent of time in perturbation theory? | Feb 12, 2014 |

Question on time-independent perturbation theory | Dec 5, 2011 |

Energy eigenfunctions in time-independent perturbation theory | Sep 26, 2010 |

Question on Time-independent perturbation theory: I am confused | Sep 26, 2010 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**