Time Independent Schrödinger equation.

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The Time Independent Schrödinger equation incorporates time through the kinetic energy operator, which defines the work needed to accelerate a mass. In quantum mechanics, a state can possess non-zero kinetic energy while remaining "stationary," meaning it does not evolve in time, contrasting with classical mechanics where kinetic energy implies motion. Quantum states evolve according to Schrödinger's equation, maintaining the statistics of observables, such as the probability of finding a particle in specific positions, constant over time.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles
  • Familiarity with Schrödinger's equation
  • Knowledge of kinetic energy concepts
  • Basic grasp of probability in quantum states
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the Time Independent Schrödinger equation in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the concept of superposition in quantum states
  • Learn about the statistical interpretation of quantum mechanics
  • Investigate the role of observables in quantum measurements
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, quantum mechanics students, and anyone interested in the foundational concepts of quantum theory and the behavior of particles in stationary states.

MixedHerbs
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
Pardon my ignorance but why does the Time Independent Schrödinger equation use Time?

It uses a kinetic energy operator.

Kinetic energy; "It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its stated velocity."

Velocity is;

"The scalar absolute value (magnitude) of velocity is speed, a quantity that is measured in meters per second (m/s or ms−1) when using the SI (metric) system."

Peter.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
In quantum mechanics a state can have non-zero kinetic energy and yet still be "stationary" in that it does not evolve in time.

Contrast classical mechanics, where a particle with non-zero kinetic energy is, almost by definition, in motion and so in a time-dependent state.
 
The_Duck said:
In quantum mechanics a state can have non-zero kinetic energy and yet still be "stationary" in that it does not evolve in time.

Contrast classical mechanics, where a particle with non-zero kinetic energy is, almost by definition, in motion and so in a time-dependent state.

May I ask what do you mean by 'evolve' with time? Becuase if you imply it moves spatially with time then you are implying a velocity and hence kinetic energy cannot be zero? Would that be right?

Thanks
 
Quantum mechanically, a particle can be in a superposition of two distinct states. For example, it could be in a superposition of a left-moving state with some speed and a right-moving state with the same speed. Then the "expectation" (average) value of the velocity of the particle is zero. Yet the particle clearly has kinetic energy. Extending this idea you can have states where the particle has kinetic energy, yet the probability of finding it at any given point is independent of time. This is what I mean by "does not evolve in time."
 
The_Duck said:
In quantum mechanics a state can have non-zero kinetic energy and yet still be "stationary" in that it does not evolve in time.

Oh, but quantum states do always evolve in time, as per Schroedinger's equation which is a consequence of a Galilei, Poincare or conformal invariant dynamics.

It's just that one can find systems whose quantum states evolve in time in such a way that the statistics of observables (which can be associated to possible outcomes of measurements) is preserved at all times.
 
Ok guys, Thank you.
 
dextercioby said:
Oh, but quantum states do always evolve in time, as per Schroedinger's equation which is a consequence of a Galilei, Poincare or conformal invariant dynamics.

It's just that one can find systems whose quantum states evolve in time in such a way that the statistics of observables (which can be associated to possible outcomes of measurements) is preserved at all times.

So, for example 70% probability finding a quantum system (say, an atom) in position1, and 30% in position2, as the evolution of the Schrödinger equation occurs, those 70% and 30% probabilities for the applicable positions stay the same?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
20
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
5K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
4K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
12K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K