Transformation rules in Boolean algebra

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on transformation rules in Boolean algebra, particularly focusing on material implication and biconditional operations. Participants explore logical equivalences, proofs, and derivations related to these transformations, including the use of truth tables and proof by contradiction.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants state that $$ p⇒q = -p∨q $$ and $$ p ↔q = (p∧q) ∨ (-p∧-q) $$ are transformations that need proof or derivation.
  • One participant suggests using truth tables to demonstrate the equivalence of $$ p⇒q $$ and $$ -p∨q $$, while others discuss the validity of proof by contradiction.
  • Another participant attempts to clarify the steps involved in deriving contradictions from assumptions related to $$ p⇒q $$ and $$ p∧-q $$.
  • There is confusion regarding the logical equivalence versus equality in the context of these transformations.
  • Some participants express uncertainty about the steps in the proof process, particularly how certain conclusions are reached.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best method for proving the transformations. Some favor truth tables, while others prefer proof by contradiction. There is ongoing confusion and debate regarding specific steps in the proofs presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants express limitations in understanding the logical steps involved in the proofs, particularly regarding assumptions and the implications of contradictions. The discussion reflects varying levels of familiarity with Boolean algebra and logical proofs.

Raghav Gupta
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I know De-Morgan's law that $$ -(p∧q) = -p∨-q $$
Also $$ -(p∨q) = -p∧-q $$
But for material implication and bi conditional operations there are also some transformation.
What is the law or proof for it? Like
$$ p⇒q = -p∨q $$
$$ p ↔q = (p∧q) ∨ (-p∧-q) $$
There may be other properties also that I don't know.
How one can derive or say that?

SideNote: Why PF don't have a negation ( tilda symbol) ?
 
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Raghav Gupta said:
I know De-Morgan's law that $$ -(p∧q) = -p∨-q $$
Also $$ -(p∨q) = -p∧-q $$
But for material implication and bi conditional operations there are also some transformation.
What is the law or proof for it? Like
$$ p⇒q = -p∨q $$
$$ p ↔q = (p∧q) ∨ (-p∧-q) $$
There may be other properties also that I don't know.
How one can derive or say that?

SideNote: Why PF don't have a negation ( tilda symbol) ?

This should strictly be logical equivalence and not equality.
You can show $$ p⇒q = -p∨q $$ , e.g., with truth tables, showing that the two associated tables are identical, or by using a derivation, assuming $$ p⇒q $$ and deriving $$-p∨q $$ from it. Example: rewrite$$ -p ∨ q = -(p ∧-q)$$ , and assume p , then assume $$ (p ∧-q)$$, and arrive at a contradiction . From previous, p follows, then q follows and then you conclude$$ q ∧-q $$ , a contradiction, from which $$ -(p ∧-q) $$ follows.
 
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WWGD said:
assuming $$ p⇒q $$ and deriving $$-p∨q $$ from it. Example: rewrite$$ -p ∨ q = -(p ∧-q)$$ , and assume p , then assume (within the assumption of p)$$ (p ∧-q)$$ . From p, q follows and then you conclude$$ q ∧-q $$ , a contradiction, from which $$ -(p ∧-q) $$ follows.
rewrite$$ -p ∨ q = -(p ∧-q)$$
That you have written by De-Morgan's Law. Then I am not able to understand afterwards.
 
I just rewrote. Please point out the steps you don't understand. I want to show A->B, and I do that by trying to show A-> -B, i.e., I assume A, and I assume it implies -B, and arriving at a contradiction from this last. Here B is (p∧-q) and A is $$ p⇒q $$ . It is a proof by contradiction.
 
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I am not understanding that,
If A is $$ p ⇒q $$ and B is $$ p ∧-q $$ then how A implying -B is a contradiction?
 
If you assume A ->B and you arrive at a contradiction, then you can conclude A--> -B. In our case, if you assume (P-->Q)-> -[ P/\-Q] and you derive a contradiction from that, then, by contradiction, you conclude (P-->Q)->[P/\-Q].

So what we do is: we assume that (P-->Q) implies the negation of what we want to prove, i.e., we assume that (P-->Q) -->-[P/\-Q] and from this we arrive at a contradiction, then we conclude (P-->Q)-->-(-[P/\-Q])==[P/\-Q].
 
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More Formally/ in more detail:

We assume P-->Q and we assume -[-P \/ Q]=[P/\-Q] , i.e., we assume (P-->Q)-->[P/\-Q] , and from this we arrive at a contradiction, from which we conclude

(P-->Q)-->[P/\-Q] ==[-P\/Q]:

Assume
(P-->Q)--> [P/\-Q] , and assume (P-->Q)
i) Then we conclude [P/\-Q] == P
ii) From [P/\-Q] ,we conclude P
iii) From [P/\-Q] , we conclude- Q
iv) From ii and the premise, we conclude Q
v)From iv) and iii) , we conclude Q/\-Q , a contradiction
vi)By contradiction, we conclude -[P/\-Q]
___________________________________ We discharge our assumption, to get:

(P-->Q) --> -[[P/\-Q]]==-P \/ Q

Which is what we wanted to show.
 
I think it is better to go by truth table.
I am able to show they are both equivalent by truth table. I am not able to understand these statements much.
Why we are in the first place going for a proof by contradiction?
WWGD said:
Assume
(P-->Q)--> [P/\-Q] , and assume (P-->Q)
i) Then we conclude [P/\-Q] == P
ii) From [P/\-Q] ,we conclude P
iii) From [P/\-Q] , we conclude- Q
iv) From ii and the premise, we conclude Q
v)From iv) and iii) , we conclude Q/\-Q , a contradiction
vi)By contradiction, we conclude -[P/\-Q]
___________________________________ We discharge our assumption, to get:

(P-->Q) --> -[[P/\-Q]]==-P \/ Q

Which is what we wanted to show.
I am not understanding the first point that how we are concluding [PΛ-Q]== P ?
 
My mistake, should be just [P/\-Q]
 

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