Trying to Understand the 1928 article by Raman on Nature

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the 1928 article by C.V. Raman regarding the Raman effect and its distinction from Compton scattering. Participants clarify that "modified scattering" refers to inelastic scattering of photons, while "normal scattering" pertains to elastic scattering. The term "feebleness" in Raman's context indicates that the intensity of the Raman effect is weaker compared to ordinary scattering. The conversation emphasizes the importance of polarization as empirical evidence supporting Raman's interpretation of modified scattering.

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Salmone
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I have two doubts about the article Raman published in 1928 on Nature when he discovered Raman effect, precisely about these two sentences he wrote:1.
If we assume that the X-ray scattering of the "unmodified" type observed by Prof. Compton corresponds to the normal or average state of the atoms and molecules, while the "modified" scattering of altered wave-length corresponds to their fluctuations from that state, it would follow that...

What does it mean the modified scattering corresponds to their fluctuations in Compton effect? I think he's talking about the radiation undergoing Compton scattering that is re-emitted at a lower frequency but why does it correspond to fluctuations? What was he talking about?

2. When he proves that the radiation emitted after Raman effect can't be simple fluorescence he says that:

That the effect is a true scattering and not a fluorescence is indicated in the first place by its feebleness in comparison with the ordinary scattering, and secondly...

What did he mean by "its flebleness in comparison with ordinary scattering"? That fluorescence is less or more intense of scattering? Something like this?

The article I'm citing is "A new type of secondary radiation" appeared on Nature-March 31, 1928.
 
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I think Raman and Krishnan simply refer to the fact that their "modified scattering" is the inelastic scattering of a photon on an atom or molecule, while the "normal scattering" refers to elastic scattering.
 
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vanhees71 said:
I think Raman and Krishnan simply refer to the fact that their "modified scattering" is the inelastic scattering of a photon on an atom or molecule, while the "normal scattering" refers to elastic scattering.
It does make sense, can you help me also with question 2?
 
This one I also haven't understood. I think the main argument is the one about polarization as an empirical proof that their interpretation of their "modified scattering" as an inelastic scattering process is correct.
 
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