Understanding Doppler Formula: Solving for Vs and Equivalencies

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    Doppler Formula
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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Doppler formula, specifically the two forms: f1 = f2 (Vw / (Vw - Vs)) and f1 = f2 / (1 + Vs / Vw). Participants clarify that these equations are equivalent when Vs is replaced by -Vs. The user seeks a step-by-step derivation from the first equation to the second, emphasizing the need for clarity in the transformation process. Key variables include f1 (Doppler frequency), f2 (source frequency), Vw (speed of sound), and Vs (speed of source).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Doppler effect and its mathematical representation.
  • Familiarity with algebraic manipulation of equations.
  • Knowledge of the physical concepts of frequency and wave propagation.
  • Basic grasp of sound speed in various media.
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  • Study the derivation of the Doppler effect equations in detail.
  • Learn about the implications of negative velocities in wave equations.
  • Explore applications of the Doppler effect in real-world scenarios, such as radar and astronomy.
  • Investigate the differences between sound and electromagnetic wave Doppler effects.
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Students of physics, educators teaching wave mechanics, and professionals in acoustics or related fields seeking a deeper understanding of the Doppler effect and its mathematical formulations.

chiuda
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doppler formula help please!:)

Hello, i see the doppler formula in 2 different forms one being f1=f2 (Vw/Vw-Vs) and the other f1=f2/(1+Vs/Vw)

f1= Doppler frequency
f2= Source frequency
Vw= Speed of sound
Vs= Speed of source

the problem i am having is understanding how these are equivalent? how fit they get from one to the other? And how would you solve for Vs in the first doppler equation stated? any help would be greatly appreciated :)
 
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hello chiuda! :smile:

if you replace Vs by -Vs, they're the same! :wink:
 


yes i understand that part but let's say the 2nd eqn was already -vs how does one get from the first equation to the second one? it would be very appreciated if all the steps could be shown thank you :)
 


Try dividing up and bottom by Vw.
 


then i would have f2*(1-Vs/Vw) which is not the same as f2/ (1-Vs/Vw) :S
 
chiuda said:
Hello, i see the doppler formula in 2 different forms one being f1=f2 (Vw/Vw-Vs) and the other f1=f2/(1+Vs/Vw)
chiuda said:
… let's say the 2nd eqn was already -vs how does one get from the first equation to the second one?
chiuda said:
then i would have f2*(1-Vs/Vw)

how do you get that? :confused:
 

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