Understanding Spin Orbit Coupling: Deriving the Hamiltonian

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on deriving the Hamiltonian for an electron in a radial electric field, specifically addressing the perturbation of the Hamiltonian due to spin-orbit coupling. The formula presented is based on the local magnetic field experienced by the electron, given by B = 1/c² v x E. The perturbation of the Hamiltonian is expressed as H' = -μ • B = C L • S, where μ is the magnetic moment, L is the angular momentum, and S is the spin. The discussion emphasizes the transition from classical to quantum mechanical descriptions, particularly the use of velocity in quantum systems.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of classical electrodynamics, specifically electric fields and magnetic fields.
  • Familiarity with quantum mechanics, particularly spin and angular momentum.
  • Knowledge of perturbation theory in quantum mechanics.
  • Basic grasp of Hamiltonian mechanics and its applications in quantum systems.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the principles of spin-orbit coupling in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about perturbation theory and its applications in deriving Hamiltonians.
  • Explore the relationship between classical and quantum mechanical descriptions of motion.
  • Investigate the mathematical formulation of angular momentum in quantum systems.
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Physicists, quantum mechanics students, and researchers interested in spin-orbit coupling and its implications in quantum systems.

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I have a question about how my book derives a formula. It starts with:
We have an electron free too move on a cylinder and from the cylinder there is an electric field pointing radially outwards.
Now for an electron moving in an electric field it sees local magnetic field given by:

B = 1/c^2 v x E (1)
And from spin pertubation theory we now get the following pertubation of the Hamiltonian:
H' = -μ \bullet B = C L\bulletS

I don't understand the last equality. I know μ(the magnetic moment) is proportional to the spin but how do we get L from (1)? - and how does it even make sense to use "v" the velocity in classical electrodynamics in a quantum mechanical system?
 
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I would argue like this: use ## v=i\hbar [H,\vec{r}]## (holds also quantum mechanically), express ## \vec{r} ## in polar coordinates and use ##H=L^2/2mr^2##.
 

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