Petrus
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Hello MHB,
I have problem understanding the last part, why do they square the bottom?
Is it because we got -2? if we would have -3 would we take the bottom $$(bottom)^3$$?
I am aware that $$\ln|f(x)|- \ln|g(x)|= \ln\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$$
Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$
I have problem understanding the last part, why do they square the bottom?

Is it because we got -2? if we would have -3 would we take the bottom $$(bottom)^3$$?
I am aware that $$\ln|f(x)|- \ln|g(x)|= \ln\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$$
Regards,
$$|\pi\rangle$$