Understanding Taylor Series and Error Bounds in Calculus

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the remainder of a Taylor series, specifically for the function \(\cos(1+x)\). The original poster is attempting to demonstrate that the absolute difference between \(\cos(1+x)\) and its Taylor polynomial approximation is less than \(\frac{1}{15000}\) for \(|x|<0.2\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the Taylor series expansion for \(\cos(1+x)\) and the associated error terms. Some express uncertainty about the formulas for the remainder and seek clarification on their application. Others suggest reviewing online resources for Taylor's theorem and the estimation of the remainder.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, sharing their understanding of Taylor series and error estimation. Some have provided guidance on how to approach the problem, while others are still working through their understanding of the concepts involved. There is a mix of correct and incorrect reasoning, with some participants questioning the steps taken by others.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the original poster's prior educational experience and the limitations of their previous curriculum regarding error estimation in Taylor series. The discussion also highlights the constraints of the problem, particularly the specified range for \(|x|\).

zcd
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I'm doing some review over summer before starting college, and one of the practice exams has a question pertaining to the remainder of a taylor series

Homework Statement


Show that [tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex] for [tex]|x|<0.2[/tex]


Homework Equations


The two equations I somewhat remember are
[tex]R_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{(n+1)}[/tex]
and
[tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
where M (iirc) is the largest value of the nth derivative in the area of convergence?

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's where I'm stuck; my class in high school never fully went over error of taylor approximation because it wasn't part of the curriculum, so we were given the equations without any actual application. To make matters worse, I last took AP calculus BC over a year ago, so this is still very rusty. Can anyone point me in the right direction?
 
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zcd said:
I'm doing some review over summer before starting college, and one of the practice exams has a question pertaining to the remainder of a taylor series

Homework Statement


Show that [tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex] for [tex]|x|<0.2[/tex]


Homework Equations


The two equations I somewhat remember are
[tex]R_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{(n+1)}[/tex]
and
[tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
where M (iirc) is the largest value of the nth derivative in the area of convergence?

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's where I'm stuck; my class in high school never fully went over error of taylor approximation because it wasn't part of the curriculum, so we were given the equations without any actual application. To make matters worse, I last took AP calculus BC over a year ago, so this is still very rusty. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

If you expand cos(1+x) in a Taylor series about x = 0 up through the term containing x3 you will have:

cos(1+x) = (terms from constant through x3) + R3

where R3 is the error term if you stop with x3. So you will have

|cos(1+x) - (terms from constant through x3)| = |R3|, where

[tex] R_3(x)=\frac{f^{(4)}(c)}{(4)!}(x-0)^{(4)}[/tex]

If you write out the series you will see it is exactly what is given. All you have to do is estimate the remainder. It tells you that |x| ≤ .2 and you will find it easy to overestimate f(4)(x). Just be brave and work it out. Don't use any decimals, stick with fractions.
 
Still getting my feet wet again so correct me if I'm wrong :P

[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|=\left|\cos{(1)}((1-\frac{x^2}{2}+R_3(x))-(1-\frac{x^2}{2}))-\sin{(1)}((x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+R_3(x))-(x-\frac{x^3}{3!}))\right|[/tex]
[tex]=\left|\cos{(1)}R_3(x)-\sin{(1)}R_3(x)\right|[/tex]

since [tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex] and Mn=1 for sin and cos, [tex]|R_3(x)|\leq{}\frac{(\frac{1}{5})^4}{4!}=\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

plugging it all back in,
[tex]\left|\cos{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}-\sin{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

is that right?
 
zcd said:
Still getting my feet wet again so correct me if I'm wrong :P

[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|=\left|\cos{(1)}((1-\frac{x^2}{2}+R_3(x))-(1-\frac{x^2}{2}))-\sin{(1)}((x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+R_3(x))-(x-\frac{x^3}{3!}))\right|[/tex]
[tex]=\left|\cos{(1)}R_3(x)-\sin{(1)}R_3(x)\right|[/tex]

since [tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex] and Mn=1 for sin and cos, [tex]|R_3(x)|\leq{}\frac{(\frac{1}{5})^4}{4!}=\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

plugging it all back in,
[tex]\left|\cos{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}-\sin{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

is that right?

The only thing right is your estimate for R3. The rest is just jumbled confusion.

Just write the Taylor series for cos(1+x) using the terms up through x3 like I suggested. You know, calculate f(0), f'(0), f''(0) etc. and write the series. This doesn't involve the remainder. Rearrange it to get the expression you are given. Write it as suggested in my previous post.
 
I think I get it

[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}-x\sin{(1)}-\frac{x^2}{2}\cos{(1)}+\frac{x^3}{3!}\sin{(1)}+...[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})+R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]=R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|=\left|R_3(x)\right|[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|\leq\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

how does the =< turn into <?
 
zcd said:
I think I get it

[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}-x\sin{(1)}-\frac{x^2}{2}\cos{(1)}+\frac{x^3}{3!}\sin{(1)}+...[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})+R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]=R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|=\left|R_3(x)\right|[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|\leq\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

how does the =< turn into <?

Good job. Look at the limits on x. Are you given strict inequality in your estimate?
 
Ahh I see. Thanks for all the help :)
 

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