MHB Union or Intersection for f(x)=0 When x in A and B

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When analyzing the function f(x)=0 for all x in sets A and B, it is concluded that f(x)=0 for all x in A∪B. The reasoning is that if a condition holds for every element in both sets, it must also hold for the union of those sets. The discussion emphasizes clarity in notation, specifically avoiding unnecessary commas in mathematical expressions. The consensus is that the union is the correct interpretation, not the intersection. This conclusion reinforces the logical relationship between the sets in question.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

When we have: $f(x)=0, \forall x \in A \wedge f(x)=0, \forall x \in B$, do we conclude that $f(x)=0, \forall x \in A \cap B$ or $f(x)=0, \forall x \in A \cup B$? (Thinking)
 
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Don't put a comma between $f(x)=0$ and $\forall x\in A$. Similarly, don't put a comma before "that".

If something holds for all $x\in A$ and all $x\in B$, then it holds for all $x\in A\cup B$.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
Don't put a comma between $f(x)=0$ and $\forall x\in A$. Similarly, don't put a comma before "that".

If something holds for all $x\in A$ and all $x\in B$, then it holds for all $x\in A\cup B$.

I see... Thank you very much! (Smile)
 
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