Unknown in discrete variable problem

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter buddingscientist
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Discrete Variable
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the normalization constant \( c \) for the probability function \( f_X(x) = \frac{c}{x!} \) where \( x = 0, 1, 2, \ldots \). The correct value of \( c \) is established as \( c = \frac{1}{e} \) after recognizing that the sum of the series \( \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x!} = e \). Additionally, the conversation addresses the definition of discrete random variables, clarifying that the range of \( X \) is countably infinite, thus confirming that it is indeed a discrete variable despite being unbounded.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of probability functions and normalization
  • Familiarity with the concept of discrete random variables
  • Knowledge of series summation, particularly the exponential series
  • Basic statistics terminology, including countable vs. uncountable sets
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Poisson distributions and their applications
  • Learn about the exponential function and its series expansion
  • Explore the concept of countability in set theory
  • Investigate further into discrete versus continuous random variables
USEFUL FOR

Statisticians, data scientists, and students of probability theory who are looking to deepen their understanding of discrete random variables and probability distributions.

buddingscientist
Messages
41
Reaction score
0
Let X be a random variable with probability function:
fx(x) = c/x!, x = 0, 1, 2, ...

Find c.

By first guess was to form the sum:
\sum_{i=0}^{x} c/i! = 1
But I have no idea if that's the right approach or how to proceed.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Probably you have to normalize the probability function, in other words the total probability should be 1:

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} f(x) = 1

This is easy because:

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x!} = e
 
ahhh!
stupid me wasn't aware of that result, thanks heaps for that.




thanks, c = 1/e for anyone whos interested. I was able to complete the other problems relating to this question.

however I have one small problem, in my studies I've learned "a random variable X will be defined to be discrete if the range of X is countable" - introduction to theory of statistics (mood). but since the values of X was unbounded in the question (X = 0, 1, 2, ...) i.e: Z+ that is uncountable. ?
 
Last edited:
buddingscientist said:
however I have one small problem, in my studies I've learned "a random variable X will be defined to be discrete if the range of X is countable" - introduction to theory of statistics (mood). but since the values of X was unbounded in the question (X = 0, 1, 2, ...) i.e: Z+ that is uncountable. ?
Does countable mean finite or countably infinite? It almost surely means countably infinite. The nonnegative integers are easily seen to be countable:
{1, 2, 3, ...}
{0, 1, 2, ...}
I can't read your original question, so if you meant something else by "unbounded", sorry, but the nonnegative integers are bounded below by 0.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K