Can This Logic Proof for ~(~E > A) Be Resolved?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a logic proof involving the expression ~(~E > A). Participants are exploring the implications of various logical statements and attempting to resolve the proof using rules of logic and implications.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are examining the validity of the original proof steps and questioning the application of logical rules, particularly regarding negation and implications. Some are attempting to work backwards from the conclusion, while others are exploring the implications of derived statements.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the proof with various attempts being shared. Some participants have provided guidance on specific steps, while others are questioning the validity of certain transformations and the application of logical rules. Multiple interpretations of the steps are being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of logical proofs and the rules of implication, with some expressing uncertainty about the application of negation and conjunctions in their reasoning.

NileQueen
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1. ~(A v B) It is neither A nor B.
2. ~(C v D) It is neither C nor D.
3. E > (C v B) If E, then C or B
Therefore, ~(~E > A)
--------------------------------------------
This is a logic proof I cannot seem to resolve.

I've tried working backwards from the conclusion.

http://www.hu.mtu.edu/~tlockha/h2701n10.s02.doc
Here are rules of replacement and rules of implication.

I know that ~ (~E > A) is a true statement.
I know that because I know ~E > A is false
Because ~E > ~ A (proved below) is true so ~E > A cannot be true.
A is not true because ~A is true. ~E is also true.

~(~E > A) cannot be unpacked because it is a horseshoe.
I can introduce (~E > A) as an addition (trying to work backwards):

1. ~A v (~E > A) add on ~A
2. A > (~E > A) 1, impl
We don't have a rule that says not P therefore not Q

3 (~E > A) v ~A 1 comm
4. ~ (~E >A) > ~A 3 impl

We don't have a rule that says Q therefore P


The proof as far as I can get it
> 1. ~(A v B)
> 2. ~(C v D)
> 3. E > (C v B)
> Therefore ~( ~E > A)
> 4. ~A and ~B ....1, DeMorgan
> 5. ~C and ~D ...2. DeMorgan
> 6. ~C...... 5. simplification
> 7. ~B......4. simplification
> 8. ~C and ~B...6,7 conjunction
> 9. ~(C v B)...8, DeMorgan
> 10. ~E.....3,9, Modus Tolens
11. ~A......4 simpl




Additional attempts:
> 12. ~A v ~A....11 tautology
> 13. A > ~A.....12. implication
> 14 ~A v E...11 addition
> 15. A> E.....14. impl
> 16. ~E > ~A....15. contraposition

17 ~A v ~E....11, add
18 A > ~E......17 impl
19 E > ~A......18, contra
 
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In your first attempt, you get ~E (line 10) and ~A (line 11). This gives
12. ~E & ~A (conjunction introduction, 10, 11)
13. ~(~(~E & ~A)) (double negation, 12)
14. ~(~E > A) (implication, 13)
 
I agree with 12.

According to Demorgan
~E*~A :: ~(E v A)

Implication
(P>Q) :: (~P v Q)
no conjunctions are involved.
 
I think you have skipped at least one step.
Also, can you really operate on things within a parentheses with a negation outside?
~(E v A ) becomes ~ (~E >A) with DN and impl
I don't see that in the rules anywhere.
Thanks for your help.
 

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