Using ampere's law for a circular loop

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Ampere's Law to calculate the magnetic field (B field) generated by a circular loop of current. Participants are exploring the effectiveness of Ampere's Law in this context and questioning the assumptions involved in the calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of using Ampere's Law for a circular loop, with some questioning the validity of assuming that the enclosed current leads to a zero magnetic field. Others explore the nature of the vector integral involved and the significance of the direction of the magnetic field relative to the path of integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants clarifying concepts and correcting misunderstandings about the nature of the integral in Ampere's Law. There is recognition of the need to choose an appropriate path for the line integral to accurately assess the magnetic field.

Contextual Notes

Some participants acknowledge previous misconceptions regarding the type of integral used and the behavior of the magnetic field around the loop, indicating a learning process in understanding the application of Ampere's Law.

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Homework Statement


Sorry to bother you guys,

I've heard that Ampere's Law is either ineffective for calculating the B field due to a circular loop or needs some modification (I wasn't sure which).

I'm trying to figure out why this doesn't work so I can get a better understanding of Ampere's Law. I have attached a picture of two loops (probably trivial). The inner loop is the one with a current the outer loop is the surface I chose for Ampere's Law.

I know you guys have to deal without a lot of dang so I hope I haven't imposed too much.

Thanks,

Homework Equations


(integral) Bdl = u * I

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
To be more concrete about this whole thing imagine I had a looped wire with current I. I will now use Ampere's Law. First I will choose a surface which is another circular loop that contains the first loop. Now I will use:
(integral) B dl = u * I. Since each piece of current in the loop has another piece of current going in the opposite direction (it's a circle after all). I should get an I enclosed of 0. This would suggest the B field is zero (which I could justify using the Biot-Savart law isn't true). For space I will not do that here; that's a number plugging game.
 

Attachments

  • Two loops.png
    Two loops.png
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Not so much a number game as a vector game.
It is not so that ##\oint \vec B\cdot \vec{dl} = 0\quad \Rightarrow \quad |\vec B| = 0 ##.
 
BvU said:
Not so much a number game as a vector game.
It is not so that ##\oint \vec B\cdot \vec{dl} = 0\quad \Rightarrow \quad |\vec B| = 0 ##.
I think I get it. Since the B fields may be opposite at some points if I integrate the B fields over the surface I will get zero. But if I'm to find a specific B field at a location since B is not a constant function (it flips signs) I can't just divide by 2* pi * r and get 0. This is because the result of taking the integral is not B * 2pi * r (again because B is changing and so can't be treated like a constant).
 
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I think you have the wrong picture of the situation

Re pictures: Perhaps google "magnetic field of current loop" and look at some of the pictures.

Re Ampere's law: the integral is not a surface integral but a line integral: ##\vec {dl}## is a little section of the wire, so to say.
(But, considering you do write "the result of taking the integral is not ##B\ 2\pi r##", it appears you have the right intention but just use the term "integrate the B fields over the surface" a little sloppy ? -- "B field over the loop" would be better)

Combining the two: From the pictures and the circular symmetry you can see that at the location of the outer loop wire ##\vec B## is in fact a constant, and the direction is perpendicular to the plane of the two wire loops. No flipping sign, no "opposite at some points".

Since ##\vec {dl}## is in that plane, the inner product ## \vec B\cdot \vec{dl} = 0 ## and that is what makes the ##\oint\ ## come out as zero.

--
 
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Ok.
(Just confirming)
$$\vec{B}\cdot\vec{dl}$$ will equal zero (because we're taking a dot product of perpendicular vectors) but this does not mean B equals zero. Ideally we want to choose a loop where B is in the same direction as dl such that we can just divide by the distance over which the line integral is taking place to get B.

Sorry about earlier; that was very very sloppy. I did mean line integral rather than surface integral, and I had temporarily assumed that the B field switched from into the page to out of the page depending on what side of the loop you were on. I didn't actually check this with greater care because I assumed that that was the only thing that could cause issues, but I hadn't considered the dot product.

Thanks,
 
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(can't delete posts)
 
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I think you are doing just fine. Ok you are !
 

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