Understanding the Variance of a One-Dimensional Random Walk

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the variance of a one-dimensional simple random walk, specifically exploring the relationship between the expectation of the square of the sum of random variables and the variance itself. Participants examine the mathematical definitions and properties related to this topic.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that the expectation E(Sn) for a one-dimensional random walk is zero and inquires about the variance, referencing a source that states E(Sn²) = n.
  • Another participant suggests that writing down the definition of Sn would help answer the question regarding variance.
  • A participant presents a calculation for Var(Sn), arguing that it can be expressed as the sum of the expectations of the squares of independent random variables, leading to the conclusion that E(Sn²) = n.
  • Another participant corrects the previous claim about the expression for S_n², clarifying that it involves a double sum over the random variables, while still asserting that the independence allows for a similar computation to show E(Sn²) = n.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the expectation of the random walk being zero and the variance being n, but there is some disagreement regarding the correct formulation of S_n² and the steps to derive the variance.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the independence and distribution of the random variables involved, which are not fully detailed. The mathematical steps leading to the variance calculation are not completely resolved, particularly in the formulation of S_n².

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Hi,

I know that the expectation E(Sn) for a one-dimensional simple random walk is zero. But what about the variance?

I read in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random_walk#One-dimensional_random_walk" that the variance should be E(Sn2) = n.

Why is that? Can anyone prove it?

Thank you very much!
 
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Just write down the definition of S_n and you will be able to answer your question yourself.
 
Var(Sn) = E(Sn2) = E(Z12 + Z22 + Z32 + ... + Zn2) =* E(Z12) + E(Z22) + ... + E(Zn2) = 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (n times) = n

*variables are independent and uncorrelated

Is this correct then?
 
This is almost correct. S_n is defined to be Z_1+\ldots +Z_n, where the Z_i are independent (or at least uncorrelated) with mean zero and variance one. It follows that
<br /> S_n^2 = \sum_{i,j=1}^n{Z_i Z_j}<br />
and not, as you wrote,
<br /> S_n^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n{Z_i^2}<br />

However, using independence of the Z_i you can still do a similar computation to prove \mathbb{E}\left[S_n^2\right]=n.
 
Thank you!
 
You're welcome:smile:
 

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