Undergrad Vector Notation of Quantum States for 2 Qubit System

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The discussion centers on understanding vector notation for quantum states in a 2 qubit system, highlighting confusion about representing these states compared to single qubits. For one qubit, states are represented as l1> = (0;1) for 1 and l0> = (1;0) for 0. The challenge arises when transitioning to two qubits, where the states l00>, l01>, l10>, and l11> need to be expressed. The solution involves using the tensor product of two vector spaces, each of dimension 2. Resources and links are provided for further clarification on the tensor product concept.
MrMuscle
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How can I write the vector notation of quantum states when I have a 2 qubit system?
I am confused about the vector notation of quantum states when I have a 2 qubit system.

For 1 qubit, I just write l1> = (0 ;1 ) for representing 1,

and l0> = (1;0) for representing 0.

Dirac notation is straightforward
However when it comes to representing two qubits in linear algebra I am confused :(

What is the vector notations for the following ones? Can you suggest a method to calculate them I don't want to memorize.

l00> = ?
l11>= ?
l10>= ?
l01>= ?

Thanks in advance!
 
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MrMuscle said:
Summary: How can I write the vector notation of quantum states when I have a 2 qubit system?

I am confused about the vector notation of quantum states when I have a 2 qubit system.

For 1 qubit, I just write l1> = (0 ;1 ) for representing 1,

and l0> = (1;0) for representing 0.

Dirac notation is straightforward
However when it comes to representing two qubits in linear algebra I am confused :(

What is the vector notations for the following ones? Can you suggest a method to calculate them I don't want to memorize.

l00> = ?
l11>= ?
l10>= ?
l01>= ?

Thanks in advance!
What you are doing is making a tensor product of two vector spaces, each of dimension 2. Read the first part of this
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tensor_productor may be this is clearer
https://www.math3ma.com/blog/the-tensor-product-demystified
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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