I Wave function collapse in the early Universe

Bouncer
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
TL;DR
What collapsed the wave function when the universe was just beginning
If the wave function collapse is real then what in the very early universe caused the wave functions to collapse into particles since there were no observers? There were not even particles, just a impossibly hot 'soup' of nothing. So what created them?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Bouncer said:
If the wave function collapse is real then what in the very early universe caused the wave functions to collapse into particles since there were no observers? There were not even particles, just a impossibly hot 'soup' of nothing. So what created them?
This question is unanswerable as you ask it because you have not specified what particular "collapse is real" interpretation you are using. You need to pick one.
 
Bouncer said:
I am not sure it matters which interpretation is used.
It most certainly does, since "collapse" is not "real" on many interpretations, and there are more than one for which it is "real", and in order to answer questions we have to have a specific interpretation to use.

The rest of your wall of text is unreadable, and since you do not appear to have a well posed question, this thread is now closed.
 
  • Like
Likes Vanadium 50 and Jobean123
This post is a spin-off of the original post that discussed Barandes theory, A new realistic stochastic interpretation of Quantum Mechanics, for any details about the interpretation in general PLEASE look up for an answer there. Now I want this post to focus on this pre-print: J. A. Barandes, "New Prospects for a Causally Local Formulation of Quantum Theory", arXiv 2402.16935 (2024) My main concerns are that Barandes thinks this deflates the anti-classical Bell's theorem. In Barandes...