Undergrad Wave function collapse in the early Universe

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The discussion centers on the implications of wave function collapse in the early universe, questioning what caused this collapse into particles in the absence of observers or existing particles. Participants emphasize the necessity of specifying a particular interpretation of wave function collapse to address the question meaningfully. The debate highlights that interpretations vary significantly, with some considering collapse as "real" and others not. The lack of clarity in the original question leads to frustration, resulting in the thread being closed for further discussion. The complexity of quantum mechanics and its interpretations remains a significant barrier to resolving these foundational questions.
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What collapsed the wave function when the universe was just beginning
If the wave function collapse is real then what in the very early universe caused the wave functions to collapse into particles since there were no observers? There were not even particles, just a impossibly hot 'soup' of nothing. So what created them?
 
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Bouncer said:
If the wave function collapse is real then what in the very early universe caused the wave functions to collapse into particles since there were no observers? There were not even particles, just a impossibly hot 'soup' of nothing. So what created them?
This question is unanswerable as you ask it because you have not specified what particular "collapse is real" interpretation you are using. You need to pick one.
 
Bouncer said:
I am not sure it matters which interpretation is used.
It most certainly does, since "collapse" is not "real" on many interpretations, and there are more than one for which it is "real", and in order to answer questions we have to have a specific interpretation to use.

The rest of your wall of text is unreadable, and since you do not appear to have a well posed question, this thread is now closed.
 
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