High School Can Instruments Alter Wave Functions Across Global Distances?

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Instruments cannot directly alter the wave function of an object across global distances due to the abstract nature of wave functions in quantum mechanics. The concept of locality suggests that while distant influences exist, their effects on measurements are negligible and often cancel out. Experiments attempting to detect such influences face significant challenges, as any detection would imply the absence of detection elsewhere, complicating the interpretation of results. The correlation observed in quantum states, like the Singlet state, arises from measurement rather than direct manipulation of the wave function. Overall, the limitations of current understanding and technology prevent practical experiments from achieving this kind of manipulation.
bluecap
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What instrument can affect wave function of object?
If wave function doesn't have any locality. Then why can't an instrument here able to access and alter the wave function of any object in the world (and detectable in the other side of the planet)? How do you make such experiments. And what could possibility prevent the possibility of this experiment?
 
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bluecap said:
What instrument can affect wave function of object?
In the mathematical formalism of quantum mechanics, the wave function is an abstract mathematical object (it's the solution to a particular differential equation) so the idea of an instrument affecting it is meaningless. It's like asking what instrument can affect the equation ##a(b+c)=ab+ac##.
 
I wonder a bit about this too. If we have a collapse of the Singlet state, what is "caused" is the correlation between the measurements, right?
 
bluecap said:
What instrument can affect wave function of object?
If wave function doesn't have any locality. Then why can't an instrument here able to access and alter the wave function of any object in the world (and detectable in the other side of the planet)? How do you make such experiments. And what could possibility prevent the possibility of this experiment?

In a limited (and somewhat semantic) sense, it can. Clearly the influence of a distant object on a measuring device here (perhaps a photon detector) would be vanishingly small. And in fact in many cases would likely cancel out entirely and you would see nothing - ever.

If you did detect something (in some rare case), that would in fact mean that the photon was not detected elsewhere. But you would have no good way to know that. In effect, many small particle (wave) probabilities are overlapping at all times.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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