Wave-Particle Duality: Questions Concerning Quantum Mechanics

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Wave-particle duality in quantum mechanics is highlighted through the Young's double-slit experiment, demonstrating that particles like photons and electrons exhibit interference patterns when unmeasured, indicating their wave nature. Measurement collapses the wave function, resulting in the observation of particles without interference patterns, raising questions about the physical existence of particles during their travel. The discussion emphasizes that quantum particles do not conform to classical definitions of particles or waves, as they operate under different rules of quantum mechanics. Participants argue that understanding quantum mechanics requires moving beyond classical interpretations and recognizing that particles are fundamentally different entities. The conversation concludes that the formalism of quantum mechanics is crucial for grasping these concepts, as traditional terms like "wave" and "particle" serve only as approximations.
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Concerning one of the fundamental quantum fysical difficulties about wave / particle duality I came to some questions...

Following the result obtained from Youngs Two slit experiment, photons create an interference pattern if no measuring apparatus is used at the slits. Also electrons or neutrons form an interference pattern if shot at the two slits, thus proving they also must be made out of waves.

If ! you use a measuring tool to detect the passing parts at the slits, and gather the information at a useful way, you will see that no interference pattern will build up at the detection screen. Thus, following QM, the wave function has collapsed and formed a particle due to measurement at the slits...

What I don't understand is that this wavefunction is a propability function, not a function that defines the path of an actual existing part, thus by quantum mechanics, implying quantum superposition. In other words, roughly said, if not measured, the photon or other particle is in a state of superposition where it effectively is smeared out as a possibility, and NOT as a fysical existing part of matter, anywhere.

This was the context, now my question;

Why can't particles be fysically existent all the time, traveling not by straight vectors( what is implied if assumed that light acts as a particle), but following their wave function? In my eyes, this would explain both particle and wave properties, and avoid the abstractness and weirdness of actual superposition.

And Why is it , that if a measuring apparatus is used at the slits, that imply a collapse of the propability wavefunction, and creation of the particle (cause no interference is seen anymore), the real particles STAY real particles till they have reached the detection screen?
In other words, why can't the particles formed out of the collapse of wavefunction at the slits be converted automatically back into waves once they left the measuring apparatus on their way to the detection screen and althus create an interference pattern (which doesn't happen)?

Hope I asked some clear questions,
Many thanks,
Matt
 
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And Why is it , that if a measuring apparatus is used at the slits, that imply a collapse of the propability wavefunction, and creation of the particle (cause no interference is seen anymore), the real particles STAY real particles till they have reached the detection screen?
In other words, why can't the particles formed out of the collapse of wavefunction at the slits be converted automatically back into waves once they left the measuring apparatus on their way to the detection screen and althus create an interference pattern (which doesn't happen)?"

I no doubt could use a refresher course in this area, but I think you are concluding something that is not true. What evidence is there that the particles STAY particles between the one slit and the screen? Even if you force a photon through one slit, the diffraction pattern on the screen is evident. In wave theory, that pattern is developed by considering the propegation of wavelets originating at all points within the slit propegating in all directions and interfering with one another. It is slightly different mathematics, but is the same basic analysis as two slit interference.
 
You (DMuit) must realize that these objects (electrons, photons, in fact everything) are all quantum particles; and quantum particles are neither the classical wave or the classical particles. The rules quantum particles obey are given by the Rules of Quantum Mechanics.

Stop regarding the quantum world classically!
 
In the particle wave duality , particle means finite amount of energy. In QM a particle does not need to have finite spatial boundaries, i think you know why ? :wink: Read the Introduction to QM of Bransden and Joachain. They clearly explain why a particle cannot be seen as an entity with finite spatial boundaries like in classical mechanics. That is a common misconception and i recommend this book if you want a clearer view. Moral of the story : a QM 'particle' is no classical 'particle'

regards
marlon
 
Well, after reading some books on quanta physics and QM, which go on and on with various experimental results and analysis. My understanding is: matters are particles, but they obey the wave mechanism to move.
 
opey said:
Well, after reading some books on quanta physics and QM, which go on and on with various experimental results and analysis. My understanding is: matters are particles, but they obey the wave mechanism to move.

They don't even need wave mechanisms to move - all objects can be described quantum mechanically, which has aspects of classical particle and classical wave descriptions, but is neither. All matter is quantum-mechanical -- and this is not the classical wave nor the classical particle.
 
masudr said:
They don't even need wave mechanisms to move - all objects can be described quantum mechanically, which has aspects of classical particle and classical wave descriptions, but is neither. All matter is quantum-mechanical -- and this is not the classical wave nor the classical particle.

Well. Your answer is QM is QM. But in fact we have to understand it from a viewpoint which is not itself. And we did.
 
opey said:
Well, after reading some books on quanta physics and QM, which go on and on with various experimental results and analysis. My understanding is: matters are particles, but they obey the wave mechanism to move.

That is essentially Bohmian mechanics.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
opey said:
Well. Your answer is QM is QM. But in fact we have to understand it from a viewpoint which is not itself. And we did.

Do we have to understand it from a viewpoint which itself is not? That's like saying understand reality from a viewpoint which is not itself real. What's the point in that?
 
  • #10
masudr said:
Do we have to understand it from a viewpoint which itself is not? That's like saying understand reality from a viewpoint which is not itself real. What's the point in that?
Sorry for my poor English. It is hard for me to express the ideas.
For example. If you ask the question: What is force? The answer force=ma helps nothing. So do QM=QM. The way to understand QM is comparing it to what we HAVE known. And what we have known are particles and waves, whcih are our standpoint to investigate.
Of course, QM itself is QM.
 
  • #11
opey said:
Sorry for my poor English. It is hard for me to express the ideas.
For example. If you ask the question: What is force? The answer force=ma helps nothing. So do QM=QM. The way to understand QM is comparing it to what we HAVE known. And what we have known are particles and waves, whcih are our standpoint to investigate.
Of course, QM itself is QM.

The standard answer to your question is: you must look at the formalism of QM. QM is a theory which is properly expressed mathematically, as is General Relativity. The words used to describe the theory are approximations which are sometimes useful shortcuts; "wave" and "particle" are such words. So it is easy to get caught up in the words when the formalism is what matters.
 
  • #12
DrChinese said:
The standard answer to your question is: you must look at the formalism of QM. QM is a theory which is properly expressed mathematically, as is General Relativity. The words used to describe the theory are approximations which are sometimes useful shortcuts; "wave" and "particle" are such words. So it is easy to get caught up in the words when the formalism is what matters.

This is precisely the kind of point I was trying to get across, but alas, I failed.
 
  • #13
DrChinese said:
The standard answer to your question is: you must look at the formalism of QM. QM is a theory which is properly expressed mathematically, as is General Relativity. The words used to describe the theory are approximations which are sometimes useful shortcuts; "wave" and "particle" are such words. So it is easy to get caught up in the words when the formalism is what matters.
Yes. QM has its own formalism. But it's different form GR, which is beat all but not impenetrable.
At the same time, "wave" and "particle" are not just shortcuts. What are shortcuts? Definition is maded by words, all words are "shortcuts". QM is not a mathematical system. A mass of matrixes, bras and kets say nothing. I think at the beginning of your studing QM, you explored it from its formation but not its formalish.
 

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