Wavefunctions of fermions and bosons

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stunner5000pt
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Homework Statement


Consider two noninteracting particles p and q each with mass m in a cubical box od size a. Assume the energy of the particles is

[tex]E = \frac{3 \hbar^2 \pi^2}{2ma^2} + \frac{6\hbar^2 pi^2}{2ma^2}[/tex]

Using the eigenfunctions
[tex]\psi_{n_{x},n_{y},n_{z}} (x_{p},y_{p},z_{p})[/tex]
and
[tex]\psi_{n_{x},n_{y},n_{z}} (x_{q},y_{q},z_{q})[/tex]

write down the two particle wave functions which could describe the system when the particles are
a) distinguishable, spinless bosons
b) identical, spinless bosons
c) identical spin-half fermions in a symmetric spin state
d) identical spin half fermions in an antisymmetric spin state

Homework Equations


For a cube the wavefunction is given by

[tex]\psi_{n_{x},n_{y},n_{z}} = N \sin\left(\frac{n_{x}\pi x}{a}\right)\sin\left(\frac{n_{y}\pi y}{a}\right)\sin\left(\frac{n_{z}\pi z}{a}\right)[/tex]

[tex]E = \frac{\hbar^2 \pi^2}{2ma^2} (n_{x}^2 + n_{y}^2 +n_{z}^2)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


for the fermions the wavefunction mus be antisymmetric under exhange
c) [tex]\Phi^{(A)}(p,q) = \psi^{(A)} (r_{p},r_{q}) \chi^{(S)}_{S,M_{s}}(p,q)[/tex]
where chi is the spin state

so since the energy is 3 E0 for the first particle there possible value nx,ny,nz are n=(1,1,1) and the second particle n'=(1,1,2).

we could select
[tex]\Psi^{(A)} (x_{p},x_{q},t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (\psi_{n}(x_{p})\psi_{n'}(x_{q} - \psi_{n}(x_{q})\psi_{n'}(x_{p}) \exp[-\frac{i(E_{n} + E_{n'})t}{\hbar}[/tex]
A means it is unsymmetric
the spin state chi could be
[tex]\chi^{(S)}_{1,1}(p,q) = \chi_{+}(p) \chi_{-}(q)[/tex]
S means it is symmetric

For d it is similar but switched around

for a) and b) i have doubts though
For a) the bosons must be distinguishable so we could have WF like this

[tex]\Psi_{1} (r_{p},r_{q},t) = \psi_{n}(r_{p})\psi_{n'}(r_{q}) \exp[-\frac{i(E_{n} + E_{n'})t}{\hbar}[/tex]
for one of the particles. Under exchange this would be symmetric.

b) if the bosons are identical then we simply have to construct a wavefunction that is smmetric like we did in part c for the fermions.

Is this right? Please help!

thanks for any and all help!
 
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by the way [tex]\chi= \chi_{S,M_{S}}[/tex]

and
[tex]\chi_{+}[/tex] when Ms = +1/2
and
[tex]\chi_{-}[/tex] when Ms = -1/2
 
Hi stunner5000pt,

I'm just learning this stuff myself, but I'll try to help. Your answer to part c looks correct. The spatial part of the wf was chosen to be antisymmetric, since the spin state is given to be symmetric, so that the *overall* wf is antisymmetric.

stunner5000pt said:
for a) and b) i have doubts though
For a) the bosons must be distinguishable so we could have WF like this

[tex]\Psi_{1} (r_{p},r_{q},t) = \psi_{n}(r_{p})\psi_{n'}(r_{q}) \exp[-\frac{i(E_{n} + E_{n'})t}{\hbar}[/tex]
for one of the particles. Under exchange this would be symmetric.

No it wouldn't be! But that's okay! :smile: Because the particles are meant to be distinguishable. So I think your answer is correct...an acceptable wavefunction for a two-particle system is the product of the individual one-particle wavefunctions, *if* you know that one is in the state n, and
the other in the state n', because you are able to tell the difference between them.

stunner5000pt said:
b) if the bosons are identical then we simply have to construct a wavefunction that is smmetric like we did in part c for the fermions.

Yes, you do have to construct a wavefunction that is symmetric. But no, it's not like part c, because in part c, you constructed a wf that was antisymmetric. :-p Not only that, but your bosons are spinless, so you'd only have a spatial part to your wavefunction, and it would have to be symmetric on its own.

Hope this helps