What are the conditions for a homomorphism to be well-defined?

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The discussion centers on determining the integers ##k## for which the function ##f_k : \mathbb{Z}/48\mathbb{Z}##, defined by ##f_k(\overline{1}) = x^k##, extends to a well-defined homomorphism. It is established that ##f_k## is well-defined if and only if ##36## divides ##48k##, which is equivalent to ##3## dividing ##k##. The participants clarify that the codomain of ##f_k## is ##\mathbb{Z}/36\mathbb{Z}##, and they confirm that the well-definedness condition can be approached by analyzing the equivalence classes of integers in the context of modular arithmetic.

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Bashyboy
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Homework Statement


Determine the integers ##k## for which ##f_k : \mathbb{Z}/ 48 \mathbb{Z}## with ##f_k (\overline{1}) = x^k## extends to a well-defined homomorphism.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


My claim is that ##f_k## extends to a well-defined homomorphism iff ##f(\overline{b}) = x^{bk}## for every ##\overline{b} \in \mathbb{Z}/48\mathbb{Z}## and ##k## is such that ##36 divides ##48k# (which is equivalent to ##3## dividing ##k##). I was able to prove that if ##f_k(\overline{b})=x^{kb}## and ##k## is such that ##36## divides ##48k##, then ##f## is a well-defined hommorphism. However, I am having difficulty with the other direction.

Suppose that ##f## is a well-defined homomorphism. Then

##
f_k(\overline{b}) = f_k(\overline{1} + \dots + \overline{1}) = f_k(\overline{1}) \dots f_k(\overline{1}) = x^k \dots x^k = x^{kz}##

Now we want to show ##k## is such that ##36## divides ##48k##. Suppose the contrary, and suppose ##\overline{b} = \overline{b'}##, which implies ##b' = b + 48m## Then by the well-defined property,

##f_k(\overline{b}) = f_k(\overline{b'})##

##x^{bk} = x^{b'k}##

##x^{bk} = x^{(b+48m)k}##

##x^{bk} = x^{bk} (x^{48k})^m##

##e = (x^{48k})^m##

This is where I get stuck...
 
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Note, ##x## is the generator of ##Z_{36}##.
 
Bashyboy said:

Homework Statement


Determine the integers ##k## for which ##f_k : \mathbb{Z}/ 48 \mathbb{Z}## with ##f_k (\overline{1}) = x^k## extends to a well-defined homomorphism.

You haven't specified the codomain of f_k. Is it \mathbb{Z} / 36 \mathbb{Z} as your attempt suggests?
 
Yes, I am sorry. It is actually ##Z_{36}##, which is of course isomorphic to it.
 
You don't need to prove two directions separately; you can do both at once.

f_k is well-defined if and only if f_k(\overline b) = f_k(\overline c) whenever b and c are in the same equivalence class. Thus you need x^{bk} = x^{(b+ 48q)k} = x^{bk}x^{48qk} for each integer q.

Your hypothesis is that well-definedness of f_k is governed by whether 36 divides 48k. So set 48k = 36p + r for integers p \in \mathbb{Z} and r \in \{0, 1, \dots, 35\}. For which values of r can you satisfy the above condition for all q?
 
What is ##q##? Should it be ##p##? The only ##r## that would satisfy the equation is ##r=0##, right?
 
Last edited:
Sorry I misread what you wrote. I was able to work problem and it agrees with what you suggested. THANKS!
 

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