I What does it mean that symmetries do not hold globally?

AI Thread Summary
In an expanding universe, Lorentz symmetry and time translational symmetry are not global, suggesting that different regions, such as other Hubble spheres, might exhibit varying symmetries. However, current models assume that the universe is homogeneous, meaning it should appear similar across all regions, including symmetry properties. Locally, Lorentz symmetry is maintained in any spacetime that general relativity can describe. Time translation symmetry only exists in stationary spacetimes, which limits its applicability. Overall, while theoretical variations in symmetry could exist, the prevailing assumption is uniformity across the universe.
Suekdccia
Messages
352
Reaction score
30
TL;DR Summary
If symmetries in the universe do not hold globally, what does that mean?
Perhaps this is a stupid question but, if Lorentz symmetry and time translational symmetry are not global in an expanding universe, wouldn't that mean that is possible that other Hubble spheres outside our observable universe could have other symmetries or an absence of the Lorentz symmetry? I mean, does this mean that the Lorentz symmetry could hold in our local region of spacetime (that is, our observable universe) but, as it does not hold globally, there could be other regions where it would not hold?
 
Space news on Phys.org
Suekdccia said:
if Lorentz symmetry and time translational symmetry are not global in an expanding universe
Lorentz symmetry isn't global in any curved spacetime.

Time translation symmetry doesn't even exist at all except in stationary spacetimes (spacetimes with a timelike Killing vector field).

Suekdccia said:
wouldn't that mean that is possible that other Hubble spheres outside our observable universe could have other symmetries
The assumption in our models is that the entire universe looks the same as our observable universe. That would include the presence or absence of symmetries.

Of course we have no way of testing that assumption, but it's the simplest one, and without ay evidence against it there's no point in making things more complicated than they need to be.

Suekdccia said:
or an absence of the Lorentz symmetry?
Not locally; any spacetime that GR can model has local Lorentz symmetry.
 
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recombination_(cosmology) Was a matter density right after the decoupling low enough to consider the vacuum as the actual vacuum, and not the medium through which the light propagates with the speed lower than ##({\epsilon_0\mu_0})^{-1/2}##? I'm asking this in context of the calculation of the observable universe radius, where the time integral of the inverse of the scale factor is multiplied by the constant speed of light ##c##.
The formal paper is here. The Rutgers University news has published a story about an image being closely examined at their New Brunswick campus. Here is an excerpt: Computer modeling of the gravitational lens by Keeton and Eid showed that the four visible foreground galaxies causing the gravitational bending couldn’t explain the details of the five-image pattern. Only with the addition of a large, invisible mass, in this case, a dark matter halo, could the model match the observations...
Hi, I’m pretty new to cosmology and I’m trying to get my head around the Big Bang and the potential infinite extent of the universe as a whole. There’s lots of misleading info out there but this forum and a few others have helped me and I just wanted to check I have the right idea. The Big Bang was the creation of space and time. At this instant t=0 space was infinite in size but the scale factor was zero. I’m picturing it (hopefully correctly) like an excel spreadsheet with infinite...
Back
Top