What is meant by uniform magnetic field?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of a uniform magnetic field and its characteristics, alongside a question about the force of friction and its dependence on surface area. Participants are exploring the definitions and implications of these physical concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the relationship between surface area and friction, with some suggesting that surface area should affect friction based on examples like ball bearings. Others are seeking clarification on the definition of a uniform magnetic field.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided hints and guidance, suggesting that further exploration of the questions is needed. There is an ongoing exchange of ideas, but no consensus has been reached regarding the questions posed.

Contextual Notes

Participants have been asked to show their work before receiving help, indicating a focus on understanding the underlying principles rather than providing direct answers. The discussion includes references to empirical observations regarding friction.

ritwik06
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Why is the force of friction independent of the area of the 2 surfaces in contact? Name a subtance used for coating to reduce friction. Is it paint?

What is meant by uniform magnetic field?
 
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Please show some work, as we cannot help you until you do so. Do you have any thoughts about the questions?
 
cristo said:
Please show some work, as we cannot help you until you do so. Do you have any thoughts about the questions?

i think that surface area in contact should affect friction. As in the case of ball bearings, the surface in contact is quite less.

I don't know about uniform magnetic field!
 
The force of friction at any point is proportional to the local pressure at that point*, i.e, doubling the pressure there doubles the friction.

The net "pressure force" F (or applied normal force) is gained by summing up the pressures at all points:
[tex]F=\int_{S}pdA[/tex]
where S is the surface we sum over, p is the local pressure, and dA the differential area element.

Now, the proportionality factor between the force of friction and the local pressure will most likely only vary significantly if the contact surface properties themselves vary significantly**.
So, if the contact surface can be regarded as relatively homogenous in material properties, the local force of friction can be written as:
[tex]dF_{fric}=\mu{p}dA[/tex]
where [itex]dF_{fric}[/itex] is the local friction force
and [itex]\mu[/itex] the constant proportionality factor.

Thus, the net friction force is given by:
[tex]F_{fric}=\int_{S}dF_{fric}=\int_{S}\mu{p}dA=\mu\int_{S}pdA=\mu{F}[/tex]

Thus, the force of friction is strictly proportional to the applied normal force, which again equals the normal force N from the surface, since the objects don't slide into each other.
Thus, the friction force is proportional to N.

In particular, in so far as the applied force remains the same, whereas the contact surface is changed, no change will be seen in the net friction force.

It is LOCALLY stronger, just as the local pressure is stronger, but the total surface is less, so the whole balances neatly.


*This is our starting HYPOTHESIS, that has ample empirical verification.

** The friction coefficient happens to be EXTREMELY sensitive to a lot of factors: temperature, presence of material impurities and so on.
This by no means reduce the validity of the argument below, but does, indeed, limit the usefulness of the model.
 
Last edited:
Hint to one of the questions: Think about non-stick cookware
 
A uniform magnetic field is one in which the magnetic flux density is constant throughout any area taken perpendicular to its direction.
 

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