yup, that's what i meant. I'm actually trying to recreate all the possibilities visually (well, conceptually) but the number i get is different from the one the below eqn yields. $$\frac{n+k-1}{k!(n-1)!}$$
basically, I'm either not covering all possible arrangements with the way I'm going about it, or the expression i came up with is just incorrect. Either way i'd like someone to point out what I'm doing wrong.so here's how I'm doing it visually, just bear with me:
first, only one of the balls traverse all possible spots leaving us so far with:
$$Arrangements = k$$
then, for each spot it occupied, we find the number of
additional arrangements it can make with an additional ball:
+1
+2
+3
for each time we move the red over, we traverse the green from position 2 to the red. (I do this because I'm trying to find the combination and not the permutation)
so now we have $$Arrangements = k + \sum^{k-1}_{i=1}(i)$$
again, being careful not to include any doubles of the same arrangement, i go from left to right.
i move the blue over to position 2, we have the same situation we had earlier, just with k-1 spots now.repeating the previous process we should end up with..
$$Arrangements = k-1 + \sum^{k-2}_{i=1}(i)$$
repeating the process till the end we get:
$$Arrangements = \sum^{k-1}_{j=0}[ (k-j) + \sum^{k-1-j}_{i=1}(i)]$$
So...
this was the case for 3 choose k. using my formula for say.. 3 choose 10, i get 121, whereas $$\frac{n+k-1}{k!(n-1)!}$$
says it should be 220. how does this not cover every possible arrangement?