What is the justification for this inequality?

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The discussion centers on the justification of the inequality involving complex-valued square-integrable Riemann integrable functions u and v on the interval [0,1]. The inequality is expressed as: \(\int_0^1(|u(s)|+|v(s)|)(|u(s)|-|v(s)|)ds\leq \left(\int_0^1(|u(s)|^2+|v(s)|^2)ds\right)^{1/2}\left(\int_0^1(|u(s)-v(s)|^2)ds\right)^{1/2}\). This formulation is directly related to Hölder's inequality, where the right-hand side represents the L² norm, with p and q both equal to 2.

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What is the justification for this inequality?

[tex]\int_0^1(|u(s)|+|v(s)|)(|u(s)|-|v(s)|)ds\leq \left(\int_0^1(|u(s)|^2+|v(s)|^2)ds\right)^{1/2}\left(\int_0^1(|u(s)-v(s)|^2)ds\right)^{1/2}[/tex]

where u and v are complex-valued square-integrable Riemann integrable functions on [0,1].

Thx.
 
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This reminds me of Holder's inequality, and the right hand side of the inequality is the L^2 norm. Go to Wikipedia and given p and q, your p and q equal 2.
 

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