- #1
referframe
Gold Member
- 307
- 16
It is my understanding that in both Classical Field Theory and QFT the Lagrangian must be Lorentz invariant in order for the fields to be considered relativistic. Buy what about the field itself (φ or ψ)? As complex-valued functions of space and time do they also have to be Lorentz invariant?
As always, thanks in advance.
As always, thanks in advance.