What's the angular acceleration?

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the relationship between linear motion and angular acceleration, emphasizing that a particle in straight-line motion can still exhibit angular velocity and acceleration when viewed from a different reference point. Participants clarify that moment of inertia is specific to rotational motion about a fixed axis, and while a particle may have angular momentum from certain perspectives, it does not imply rotational motion in the conventional sense. The confusion arises from the application of torque and moment of inertia in scenarios where the particle is not rotating but is subject to forces. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the importance of the chosen coordinate system in analyzing motion and the validity of different interpretations regarding angular quantities. Understanding these concepts is crucial for resolving misconceptions about angular acceleration in linear trajectories.
  • #31
NTesla said:
@kuruman, I would like to know your point of view of whether we can calculate moment of inertia in the case of the original question, i.e. when the particle is moving in straight line, but the axis about which we need to calculate torque is some distance apart from particle's line of motion.
Why can't we have ##I=mr^2## in this particular case? It's just that the moment of inertia about the origin is not constant in time but there is nothing untoward about that. Watch this.

Start with the angular moment about the origin when the particle is at some arbitrary position ##\vec r## moving with arbitrary constant velocity ##\vec v##. Then its angular momentum momentum about the origin is given by ##\vec L= \vec r\times(m\vec v).## Using results posted in #27, ##\dfrac{d\vec r}{dt}=\vec v=\dot r~\hat r+r \dot \theta ~\hat \theta.## Substitute,$$\vec L= r~\hat r\times[m(\dot r~\hat r+r \dot \theta ~\hat \theta)]=m[(r\dot r~(\hat r\times\hat r)+mr^2\dot \theta~(\hat r\times \hat \theta)]=mr^2 \dot\theta~\hat z.$$With the definitions ##I=mr^2## and ##\dot \theta\hat z=\vec \omega##, you have the well known result, ##\vec L = I\vec \omega##.

Note, that both ##I## and ##\vec \omega## change with respect to time, nevertheless their product is constant because angular momentum about the origin is conserved since the torque about the origin is zero.

On edit:
If there is a torque about the origin, then you can find an expression for it simply by using $$\vec \tau=\frac{d\vec L}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left(mr^2 \dot\theta~\hat z\right).$$ The Cartesian unit vector is constant in time, so you only have to use the product rule on ##r^2## and ##\dot\theta##.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes NTesla and PeroK
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
@kuruman , @PeroK, @haruspex,
As there is a general form of ##\alpha =\ddot{\theta }+\frac{2\dot{r}\dot{\theta }}{r}##, Is there any general form for ##\omega## ? Or is it just ##\frac{d\theta}{dt}## ?
 
  • #34
NTesla said:
@kuruman , @PeroK, @haruspex,
As there is a general form of ##\alpha =\ddot{\theta }+\frac{2\dot{r}\dot{\theta }}{r}##, Is there any general form for ##\omega## ? Or is it just ##\frac{d\theta}{dt}## ?
You can easily derive the expression. From what has been said above, $$\vec \omega=\frac{\vec L }{I}=\frac{\vec r \times (m \vec v)}{mr^2}=\frac{\vec r\times \vec v}{r^2}.$$I don't know if it qualifies as a "general" form, but the same expression is given in the Wikipedia link provided by @PeroK in post #33.
 
  • Like
Likes NTesla

Similar threads

Replies
335
Views
14K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
1K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
485
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
8
Views
3K