When does an accelerated electron not radiate?

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The discussion centers on the radiation of accelerated electrons in classical electrodynamics versus quantum mechanics. It asserts that classical electrodynamics posits that any charged particle with non-zero acceleration radiates energy continuously, while quantum mechanics suggests that if a particle has no attainable lower energy state, it will not radiate. Phil Gardner emphasizes the importance of consulting the FAQ in the General Physics section for further clarification on this topic.

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This discussion is beneficial for physics students, educators, and researchers interested in the nuances of radiation theory in both classical and quantum frameworks.

pej.dgr
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Classical electrodynamics assumes that any charged particle that has a non-zero acceleration is, all the time, radiating energy even if most of the time the energy loss is far too small to detect. Anyone who accepts the physical existence of stationary states rejects the “all the time” assumption.

I would read quantum mechanics as saying “If with no change in the velocity of the particle there is no attainable state of lower energy there will be no radiation?”

Is this correct?

Phil Gardner
 
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Please read our FAQ in the General Physics section.

Zz.
 
How does one find your FAQ? A search for "FAQ" turns up nothing. A title search for "Freqently" or "asked" turns up nothing relevant.

Phil Gardner
 
pej.dgr said:
How does one find your FAQ? A search for "FAQ" turns up nothing. A title search for "Freqently" or "asked" turns up nothing relevant.

Phil Gardner

Er... as was mentioned, go to the General Physics forum. One of the stickied thread is titled "Physics Forums FAQ".

Zz.
 
what a rat guy zapperz
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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