MatheusMkalo
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Who First Utilized Rigorous Proofs in Mathematics?
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There has reportedly been some discussion among scholars whether the Egyptians knew the formula [tex]a^3-b^3=(a-b)(a^2+ab+b^2)[/tex].
In fact, the Babylonians knew formulas like [tex]xy=\frac{(x+y)^2-(x-y)^2}{2}[/tex]. So it wouldn't seem unlikely that already the Babylonians and the Egyptians knew about [tex](a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2[/tex]. But, to my knowledge, there is no proof that they did.
But the Greeks almost certainly knew the formula. It seems like one of the things that Pythagoras liked to prove geometrically...
In fact, the Babylonians knew formulas like [tex]xy=\frac{(x+y)^2-(x-y)^2}{2}[/tex]. So it wouldn't seem unlikely that already the Babylonians and the Egyptians knew about [tex](a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2[/tex]. But, to my knowledge, there is no proof that they did.
But the Greeks almost certainly knew the formula. It seems like one of the things that Pythagoras liked to prove geometrically...
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This site: http://www.math.tamu.edu/~dallen/history/babylon/babylon.html explains that the Babylonians probably knew about the formula and used it to generate Pythagorean triples (yes, Pythagoras' theorem was also known to them!)
coolul007
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The Greeks had rigorous proofs, while other civilizations didn't require proofs, just acceptance.