Why are dimension > 4 operators non-renormalizable?

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Terms in the Lagrangian with mass dimension greater than four are considered non-renormalizable because they lead to coupling constants with negative dimensions, which complicates the renormalization process. In effective field theories, these higher-dimensional terms can introduce divergences that are not manageable within the standard renormalization framework. The renormalization group flow for such couplings diverges at a mass scale defined by the coupling itself, indicating that the theory becomes less predictive at higher energies. Key references for understanding this concept include chapters from Peskin and Schroeder, which discuss the implications of these terms in detail. Overall, the non-renormalizability of dimension > 4 operators poses significant challenges for theoretical consistency in quantum field theories.
fliptomato
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Hi everyone--I'm curious why terms in the Lagrangian with mass dimension greater than four are "nonrenormalizable."

I understand that the action must be dimensionless, hence the Lagrangian [density] has mass dimension 4. However, in effective field theories, we can end up with terms of dimension > 4, hence the coupling must have negative dimension. What's so bad about this?

(I guess somehow the renormalization group flow for such coupling constants diverges a mass scale given by the coupling?)

Thanks,
Flip
 
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fliptomato said:
(I guess somehow the renormalization group flow for such coupling constants diverges a mass scale given by the coupling?)

It is exactly that ! It is explained for example in Ch 12 of Peskin and Schroeder, although quite sketchy.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
vanesch said:
It is exactly that ! It is explained for example in Ch 12 of Peskin and Schroeder, although quite sketchy.

cheers,
Patrick.

Peskin and Schroeder first talks about this in chapter 4 after introducing
the φ4, QED and Yukawa interaction terms, See bottom of page 79.

Then there's more in chapter 10.

PS: Thanks to Google-Print we may hope to link directly to the appropriate
book pages like in this example here:

http://print.google.com/print?id=ZbTXdWsrsAEC&lpg=237&dq=renormalizable+higher+order+interaction+term&prev=http://print.google.com/print%3Fie%3DUTF-8%26q%3Drenormalizable%2Bhigher%2Border%2Binteraction%2Bterm%26btnG%3DSearch&pg=237&sig=5Vrhek6UvWRHsdqimJlTP0ACCrY

Regards, Hans.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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