I Why do I get to a contradiction?

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I don't understand why LzL+ acting over m is Planck constant(m+1) L+|m>. I 've done it and I've got to a contradiction. Am I doing something wrong?
 
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Your notaion is difficult to understand. Do you mean
$$
L_z L^+ | l,m \rangle = \hbar (m+1) L^+ | l,m \rangle
$$
with ##L^+## the raising operator and ##| l,m \rangle## an eigenstate of ##L^2## and ##L_z## (with quantum numbers ##l## and ##m##)?

If so, what is the result of ##L^+ | l,m \rangle##?
 
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Gjmdp said:
I've got to a contradiction. Am I doing something wrong?
Even though you didn't say what exactly have you done, the above is sufficient to conclude that the answer is - yes.
 
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Demystifier said:
Even though you didn't say what exactly have you done, the above is sufficient to conclude that the answer is - yes.
Yup that is very probable. But, there's still the option I didn't understand some of the mathematics, and yet, I may not have done anything wrong.
 
Gjmdp said:
Yup that is very probable. But, there's still the option I didn't understand some of the mathematics, and yet, I may not have done anything wrong.

Then please show us what you have already done.
 
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