Gjmdp
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I don't understand why LzL+ acting over m is Planck constant(m+1) L+|m>. I 've done it and I've got to a contradiction. Am I doing something wrong?
The discussion centers around the application of the raising operator ##L^+## in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of the eigenstates ##| l,m \rangle## of the angular momentum operators ##L^2## and ##L_z##. The user expresses confusion regarding the expression $$L_z L^+ | l,m \rangle = \hbar (m+1) L^+ | l,m \rangle$$ and reports encountering a contradiction in their calculations. The consensus among participants indicates that the user likely misunderstood the mathematical framework, leading to the contradiction.
PREREQUISITESStudents and professionals in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying angular momentum, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to raising and lowering operators.
Even though you didn't say what exactly have you done, the above is sufficient to conclude that the answer is - yes.Gjmdp said:I've got to a contradiction. Am I doing something wrong?
Yup that is very probable. But, there's still the option I didn't understand some of the mathematics, and yet, I may not have done anything wrong.Demystifier said:Even though you didn't say what exactly have you done, the above is sufficient to conclude that the answer is - yes.
Gjmdp said:Yup that is very probable. But, there's still the option I didn't understand some of the mathematics, and yet, I may not have done anything wrong.