Why do improper integrals split at different points give the same sum?

  • Thread starter Thread starter DivGradCurl
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrals
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
2 replies · 2K views
DivGradCurl
Messages
364
Reaction score
0
If [tex]\int _{-\infty} ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx[/tex] is convergent and [tex]a[/tex] and [tex]b[/tex] are real numbers, show that

[tex]\int _{-\infty} ^a f(x)\: dx + \int _a ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx = \int _{-\infty} ^b f(x)\: dx + \int _b ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx[/tex]


I'm clueless on how to show it other than by drawing what is stated: a generic finite integral being split into two finite pieces for each arbitrary point. Is there any other way to approach this problem?

Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
thiago_j said:
I'm clueless on how to show it other than by drawing what is stated: a generic finite integral being split into two finite pieces for each arbitrary point. Is there any other way to approach this problem?

Perhaps you could use something like:
[tex]\int _{-\infty} ^a f(x)\: dx + \int _a ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx = \int _{-\infty} ^a f(x)\: dx + \int _{a} ^b f(x)\: dx +\int _b ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx = \int _{-\infty} ^b f(x)\: dx + \int _b ^{\infty}f(x)\: dx[/tex]

But that's really just an algebraic representation of what you're suggesting.
 
That sounds about right. I mean, I can't see anything else that could be done.
 
Last edited: