Goklayeh
- 15
- 0
Hello everybody! I have a really silly question concerning wave equation: consider the problem
<br /> \left\{<br /> \begin{matrix}<br /> u_{tt} &=& u_{xx} & x \in \mathbb{R}\\<br /> u(x,0) &=& 0 & \\<br /> u_t(x,0) &=& x(1-x)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]}(x)&<br /> \end{matrix}<br /> \right.<br />
the solution is given by d'Alembert's formula
<br /> u(x,t) = \int_{x-t}^{x+t}{y(1-y)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]}(y) \mathrm{d}y} = <br /> \int_{\mathbb{R}}{y(1-y)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]\cap \left[x-t,x+t\right]}(y) \mathrm{d}y}<br />
Now, it's clear that \forall x_0 \in \mathbb{R}\:\: \exists t_0 s.t. u(x_0,t) \ne 0\:\: \forall t > t_0. For instance, fix x_0 = -1. Then, for all t \ge 2, we have u(-1,t) = \int_0^1{(y - y^2)\mathrm{d}y} = \frac{1}{6}\ne 0. But, physically, this means that the wave passes through x_0 definitively, i.e. for all enough big times. How is this possible? Or, where I'm wrong?
Thank you for your attention
<br /> \left\{<br /> \begin{matrix}<br /> u_{tt} &=& u_{xx} & x \in \mathbb{R}\\<br /> u(x,0) &=& 0 & \\<br /> u_t(x,0) &=& x(1-x)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]}(x)&<br /> \end{matrix}<br /> \right.<br />
the solution is given by d'Alembert's formula
<br /> u(x,t) = \int_{x-t}^{x+t}{y(1-y)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]}(y) \mathrm{d}y} = <br /> \int_{\mathbb{R}}{y(1-y)\chi_{\left[0,1\right]\cap \left[x-t,x+t\right]}(y) \mathrm{d}y}<br />
Now, it's clear that \forall x_0 \in \mathbb{R}\:\: \exists t_0 s.t. u(x_0,t) \ne 0\:\: \forall t > t_0. For instance, fix x_0 = -1. Then, for all t \ge 2, we have u(-1,t) = \int_0^1{(y - y^2)\mathrm{d}y} = \frac{1}{6}\ne 0. But, physically, this means that the wave passes through x_0 definitively, i.e. for all enough big times. How is this possible? Or, where I'm wrong?
Thank you for your attention