Why do the X, Y, Z operators switch parity?

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
4 replies · 2K views
VortexLattice
Messages
140
Reaction score
0
I'm reading about selection rules, and the book is talking about how if you have a parity switching operator in between two wave vectors of opposite (definite) parity, the result is 0. For example, we have

[itex]\left\langle2,0,0 \right|\hat{X}\left|2,0,0\right\rangle = 0[/itex] because [itex]\left|2,0,0\right\rangle[/itex] is of even parity, and X switches its parity (where these kets are the hydrogen wave functions). Then, we have an even parity bra with an odd parity ket, and the result is 0.

My question is, why do these operators switch parity? I'd love to have both a physical and mathematical reason.

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Ben Niehoff said:
Think about the representation of these operators in the position basis.

Hmm...I mean, we have the radial function, and the spherical harmonics...sorry, I'm not seeing it :(
 
Use Cartesian coordinates instead of spherical. What does an even-parity wavefunction look like? What is the X operator in this basis?
 
Ben Niehoff said:
Use Cartesian coordinates instead of spherical. What does an even-parity wavefunction look like? What is the X operator in this basis?

I guess an even-parity wavefunction is symmetric over the x axis? And, as far as I know, the X operator in Cartesian coordinates is just x.

I mean, I think I have the basic idea. I know that that on some level it's essentially integrating an odd function from -a to a, which will always be 0.

Actually, I think I have it. These wave functions are always even or odd. So x turns an odd function into an even one, or an even one into an odd one.