Why do we call the psi function the wave' function

  • Thread starter Thread starter HomogenousCow
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function Psi Wave
Click For Summary
The term "wave function" for the psi function is historically rooted and reflects early interpretations of quantum mechanics, particularly de Broglie's wave-particle duality concept. Although the Schrödinger equation admits sinusoidal solutions, which resemble waves, the psi function itself does not inherently relate to traditional wave behavior. The name persisted despite the discovery of many solutions that are not wave-like, partly due to Schrödinger's own uncertainty about its meaning. Additionally, the mathematical structure of the Schrödinger equation allows for complex values and linear interference, further contributing to the wave-like association. Ultimately, the terminology remains a point of discussion due to its historical context and evolving understanding of quantum mechanics.
HomogenousCow
Messages
736
Reaction score
213
Why do we call the psi function the "wave' function

When in reality it has little to do with waves.
Sure the schrodinger equation admits sinusoidal solutions but so does the heat equation.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Because it's a wave equation.
 
Why do we call the psi function the "wave' function
When in reality it has little to do with waves.
Sure the schrodinger equation admits sinusoidal solutions but so does the heat equation.

You are right, the function ##\psi## has little to do with waves and ordinary wave equation. The reason is partly historical and partly the difficulty with proper interpretation of the function ##\psi##. de Broglie's idea that particles traveling in one direction are guided by some kind of wave motivated Schroedinger to invent his equation for this wave. The meaning of the function ##\psi## in the equation was unclear even to Schroedinger, but the name wave function seemed apropriate since the de Broglie wave is a solution of the simplest Schroedinger equation. Then it was found out that the equation has also many other solutions that are not waves, but the name sticked.

It is said that Einstein did not use the name "wave function" but instead used "##\psi##-function", perhaps for the same reason you are asking.
 
HomogenousCow said:
When in reality it has little to do with waves.
Sure the schrodinger equation admits sinusoidal solutions but so does the heat equation.

Because the equation has solutions that take the form of traveling waves, ##\psi(x, t) = e^{i k x - i \omega t}##. This is a traveling sinusoidal wave.

The heat equation does not have solutions that look like traveling waves: its sinusoidal solutions look like ##\phi(x, t) = e^{i k x - \omega t}##. Note the crucial difference in the time dependence.
 
Last edited:
Mathematically, the Shroedinger equation is like the heat equation except that it can take on complex values.
States follow a continuous Markov like process with amplitudes replacing probabilities. See Feynmann's Lectures on Physics Vol3 for a derivation from a discrete process of amplitude transitions.

One reason the Shroedinger equation may be thought of as wave equation might be because wave functions interfere linearlly, like linear waves.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
502
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 61 ·
3
Replies
61
Views
5K
  • · Replies 39 ·
2
Replies
39
Views
2K
  • · Replies 32 ·
2
Replies
32
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K