cragar said:
If the empty set has no elements then how can it have subsets.
Or are we just saying because they don't have anything in them there are equal.
If a set is equal to its subset then why is it a subset.
And How many subsets does the empty set have.
It might be helpful to appeal to the definition of a subset.
We say that [itex]A \subseteq B[/itex] if
[tex]\forall x [x \in A \rightarrow x \in B][/tex]
In other words if x is an element of A, then x must be an element of B.
Now, let's consider the proposition [itex]\emptyset \subseteq \emptyset[/itex]
Is it true that if [itex]x \in \emptyset[/itex] then [itex]x \in \emptyset[/itex]?
Well, yes. Because this is another one of those vacuous empty set propositions. If x is in the empty set, pretty much anything you can say about x is true. There is no x in the empty set that could falsify the left side of the implication. So the proposition "if x is an element of the empty set, then x is an element of the empty set" is vacuously true.
Therefore, by definition, [itex]\emptyset \subseteq \emptyset[/itex]
For the same reason, every set is a subset of itself. Symbolically, to show that for any given set [itex]A, A \subseteq A[/itex], we just go back to the definition.
If [itex]a \in A[/itex], then [itex]a \in A[/itex]. Therefore A is a subset of A.
You are right that that seems a bit strange; and in fact we give a special name to a subset that is not the entire set: we call a subset a
proper subset if it's a subset that's not all of the original set. So A is a subset of A, but not a proper subset of A. And [itex]\emptyset[/itex] is a subset, but not a proper subset, of [itex]\emptyset[/itex].