Why Does the Limit of (n! / n^2) Approach Infinity?

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SUMMARY

The limit of (n! / n^2) as n approaches infinity is indeed infinity, as confirmed by the solution manual. This conclusion arises from the properties of the factorial function, particularly when applying Stirling's approximation, which states that n! approximates to √(2πn) * (n/e)^n for large n. The misunderstanding stems from incorrectly analyzing the terms in the numerator and denominator; while individual terms in the numerator may appear smaller, the factorial grows significantly faster than the quadratic denominator.

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Homework Statement



So, I'm doing a series problem, and after applying the root test I end up with the following limit:

Lim as n--> inf of (n! / n^2) = infinity according to the solution manual.

I can't seem to understand this because the way I look at it, each term in the numerator is getting smaller [ (n)(n-1)(n-2)..] but each term in the denominator is staying constant as n^2. So shouldn't the limit equal zero?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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ThatDude said:

Homework Statement



So, I'm doing a series problem, and after applying the root test I end up with the following limit:

Lim as n--> inf of (n! / n^2) = infinity according to the solution manual.

I can't seem to understand this because the way I look at it, each term in the numerator is getting smaller [ (n)(n-1)(n-2)..] but each term in the denominator is staying constant as n^2. So shouldn't the limit equal zero?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Google 'properties of factorial function' for example. You will see exactly what is going on for large n.
 
For n \geq 3 we have
<br /> \frac{n!}{n^2} \geq \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{n^2} = n - 3 + \frac{2}{n}.<br /> The inequality follows from the fact that if n = 3 then n! = n(n-1)(n-2) whilst if n \geq 4 then (n-3) \times \dots \times 1 \geq 1.
 
I recommand stirling approximation, it will be very appropriate for this case, it states that when n goes to infinity n! = √(2πn) * (n/e)^n, so try it !
 
ThatDude said:

Homework Statement



So, I'm doing a series problem, and after applying the root test I end up with the following limit:

Lim as n--> inf of (n! / n^2) = infinity according to the solution manual.

I can't seem to understand this because the way I look at it, each term in the numerator is getting smaller [ (n)(n-1)(n-2)..] but each term in the denominator is staying constant as n^2. So shouldn't the limit equal zero?
You're looking at the wrong end in the numerator. Look at the n=3, n=4, and n=5 terms, for example. You have
\begin{align*}
\frac{3!}{3^2} &= \frac{3\cdot 2\cdot 1}{3\cdot 3} \\
\frac{4!}{4^2} &= \frac{4 \cdot 3\cdot 2\cdot 1}{4 \cdot 4} \\
\frac{5!}{5^2} &= \frac{5\cdot 4 \cdot 3\cdot 2\cdot 1}{5 \cdot 5}
\end{align*} Can you see the mistake in your reasoning?
 
Last edited:
So let's say I have the sequence n!(2^n) /(2n)!, how would I show that this converges to zero.
 
ThatDude said:
So let's say I have the sequence n!(2^n) /(2n)!, how would I show that this converges to zero.
Start by expanding the (2n)! in the denominator to (2n)(2n -1) ...(n+1)(n!).
 

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