nonequilibrium
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Hello,
In my probability course it is used that \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}.
I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?
In my probability course it is used that \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}.
I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?