Why does the system has lower energy if its wave function is symmetric?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between the symmetry of wave functions and their energy states in quantum mechanics, specifically when the Hamiltonian operator (H) commutes with the parity operator (P). It is established that while symmetric wave functions do not universally guarantee lower energy than antisymmetric ones, the node-counting theorem indicates that states with fewer nodes correspond to lower energy levels. Typically, antisymmetric wave functions possess at least one node, while symmetric wave functions can have zero nodes, thus often resulting in lower energy states.

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  • Familiarity with Hamiltonian mechanics and operators.
  • Knowledge of the parity operator and its implications in quantum systems.
  • Awareness of the node-counting theorem and its significance in energy state determination.
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xfshi2000
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Hi all:
I am confused that in general case, if [H,p]=0 (where H is Hamiltonian of system and P is parity operator), system wave function is either symmetric or antisymmetric. How do we know that system is in lower energy state if its wave function is symmetric by comparing that system is described by antisymmetric wave function? What I said is true or not? If true, what is physical significance behind?

thanks

xf
 
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xfshi2000 said:
Hi all:
I am confused that in general case, if [H,p]=0 (where H is Hamiltonian of system and P is parity operator), system wave function is either symmetric or antisymmetric. How do we know that system is in lower energy state if its wave function is symmetric by comparing that system is described by antisymmetric wave function? What I said is true or not? If true, what is physical significance behind?

thanks

xf

It is not generally true that symmetric (wrt parity) wave-functions always have lower energy than anti-symmetric ones. However, there is a "node-counting theorem" (at least for bound states) which basically states the energies of the states are ordered according to the number of nodes in the wave-function. I.e. a state with a wave-function with n nodes has a lower energy than a state with n+1 nodes and so on. Since any anti-symmetric wave-function must have at least one node there usually (always?) exists a symmetric wave-function with zero nodes which has the lowest energy.

At least this is what I can remember, please correct me if I am wrong (I'm too lazy to look it up)
 
Last edited:
jensa said:
It is not generally true that symmetric (wrt parity) wave-functions always have lower energy than anti-symmetric ones. However, there is a "node-counting theorem" (at least for bound states) which basically states the energies of the states are ordered according to the number of nodes in the wave-function. I.e. a state with a wave-function with n nodes has a lower energy than a state with n+1 nodes and so on. Since any anti-symmetric wave-function must have at least one node there usually (always?) exists a symmetric wave-function with zero nodes which has the lowest energy.

At least this is what I can remember, please correct me if I am wrong (I'm too lazy to look it up)



thanks for your answer. By the way, where can I find node-counting theorem? which textbook talk about this theorem?
 
Unfortunately I don't know a good reference discussing this. It seems to be very overlooked in QM books. Probably it is more likely to find this in some book on differential equations. Some googling led me to this http://www.emis.de/journals/AM/98-1/kusano.ps" . Not sure if it helps you.

Many people refer to this theorem without giving any references. I remember having a very hard time finding a proof of this theorem and now I don't remember where I found it. Good luck!
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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