Hi, I have a doubt concerning the following simple problem. This is actually a textbook problem, so the answer is correct. I just want to understand why this is. 1^(1/6) = exp ((1/6)(2n*[tex]\pi[/tex]i)) = cos (n*[tex]\pi[/tex]/3) + i sin (n*[tex]\pi[/tex]/3) where n = 0,1,2,3,... Ok, it is comprehensible that for n=0 we get cos(0) = 1, which is equal to 1^(1/6) = 1 However, I can't grasp why with n=1, for example, cis (n[tex]\pi[/tex]/3) is still equal to 1. In that case we would have cos([tex]\pi[/tex]/3) + i sin([tex]\pi[/tex]/3). How can that be equal to 1?! It has an imaginary part! Not even the real parts are equal. The pi's appear as exponentials for some reason. Anyway, you get what I'm saying.