MHB Why is a boundary condition at x=0 redundant for this Cauchy problem?

  • Thread starter Thread starter onie mti
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Cauchy
onie mti
Messages
42
Reaction score
0
I have this cauchy problem
U_t(x,t)= c_0[tanhx]u_x(x,t)=0
U(x,0)= u_0(x)

I managed to prove that it has at most one solution my question is why would it be redundant to have a boundary condition at x=0
 
Physics news on Phys.org
onie mti said:
I have this cauchy problem
U_t(x,t)= c_0[tanhx]u_x(x,t)=0
U(x,0)= u_0(x)

I managed to prove that it has at most one solution my question is why would it be redundant to have a boundary condition at x=0

If it is, as you say, that
\begin{align*}
u_t(x,t)&=C_0 \tanh(x) \, u_x(x,t) \\
u(x,0)&=u_0(x),
\end{align*}
then the DE itself says that $u_t(0,t)=C_0 \tanh(0) \, u_x(0,t)$; but $\tanh(0)=0$. So, at the very least, $u(0,t)$ cannot change in time, since $u_t(0,t)=0$.

It follows that $u(0,0)=u_0(0)$, and hence $u(0,t)=u_0(0)$.

But what would a boundary condition have to look like?
 
I have the equation ##F^x=m\frac {d}{dt}(\gamma v^x)##, where ##\gamma## is the Lorentz factor, and ##x## is a superscript, not an exponent. In my textbook the solution is given as ##\frac {F^x}{m}t=\frac {v^x}{\sqrt {1-v^{x^2}/c^2}}##. What bothers me is, when I separate the variables I get ##\frac {F^x}{m}dt=d(\gamma v^x)##. Can I simply consider ##d(\gamma v^x)## the variable of integration without any further considerations? Can I simply make the substitution ##\gamma v^x = u## and then...

Similar threads

Replies
0
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
3K