Why Is a Given State an Eigenstate of Field Operators in Quantum Field Theory?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between field operators and eigenstates in Quantum Field Theory, specifically referencing Peskin's "An Introduction To Quantum Field Theory." The equation \(\hat{\phi}_S(\vec{x}_1) |\varphi \rangle = \varphi(x) |\varphi \rangle\) illustrates that the generalized kets \(|\varphi \rangle\) are defined as eigenstates of the field operator \(\hat{\phi}_S\) in the Schrödinger picture. The eigenvalue corresponds to the field amplitudes at specific positions, facilitating the transition from Hilbert space states to c-number functions for functional integrals.

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chientewu
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Hi,

I am studying Peskin's An Introduction To Quantum Field Theory. On the beginning of page 284, the authors say We can turn the field \phi_S(x_1)|\phi_1\rangle=\phi_1(x_1)|\phi_1\rangle. I tried hard to prove this relation but still can't get it right. Could anyone give me some hints? Thanks.
 
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It's a bit strangely formulated. The generalized kets |\varphi \rangle are defined as generalized eigenstates of the field operators (here in the Schrödinger picture of time evolution), i.e.,
\hat{\phi}_S(\vec{x}_1) |\varphi \rangle = \varphi(x) |\varphi \rangle.
Note that \hat{\phi}_S is a field operator in the Schrödinger picture while \varphi is a (complex or real-valued, depending on whether you describe charged or strictly neutral scalar bosons) c-number field.
 
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vanhees71 said:
Note that \hat{\phi}_S[/itex] is a field operator in the Schrödinger picture while \varphi is a (complex or real-valued, depending on whether you describe charged or strictly neutral scalar bosons) c-number field.
<br /> This is difficult to read. Please format your LaTeX correctly, or use UTF. <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f609.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=":wink:" title="Wink :wink:" data-smilie="2"data-shortname=":wink:" />
 
Bill_K said:
This is difficult to read. Please format your LaTeX correctly, or use UTF. :wink:

Done (butt no UTF, which is hard to read either ;-)).
 
vanhees71 said:
It's a bit strangely formulated. The generalized kets |\varphi \rangle are defined as generalized eigenstates of the field operators (here in the Schrödinger picture of time evolution), i.e.,
\hat{\phi}_S(\vec{x}_1) |\varphi \rangle = \varphi(x) |\varphi \rangle.
Note that \hat{\phi}_S is a field operator in the Schrödinger picture while \varphi is a (complex or real-valued, depending on whether you describe charged or strictly neutral scalar bosons) c-number field.

Thanks! That makes sense but I still don't understand why this given state is an eigenstate of field operators with eigenvalue being the field amplitudes at some specific position.
 
chientewu said:
Thanks! That makes sense but I still don't understand why this given state is an eigenstate of field operators with eigenvalue being the field amplitudes at some specific position.

Because that's how we're defining the state |\phi_1\rangle. We're trying to pick out the state in the Hilbert space that, when you hit it with the field operator at any position x, will give you an eigenvalue equal to the c-number \phi(x). It's a way of going from states in a Hilbert space to simple c-number functions, so that you can perform the functional integral over them.
 
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