Why Is Calculating the Normalization Constant in Quantum Mechanics Challenging?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the normalization constant in quantum mechanics, specifically for a wave function given in a problem from a past paper. The original poster expresses difficulty in deriving the normalization constant A and presents a specific formula they are trying to prove.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants inquire about the integral setup for calculating A, with some suggesting that showing more steps might help identify errors. Others mention the relevance of odd and even functions in the context of normalization.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the problem, with participants offering guidance on how to approach the integral and questioning the assumptions made by the original poster. The original poster later acknowledges a misunderstanding of the question, indicating a shift in the discussion's focus.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly interpreting the question, as the original poster misread the scope of the square root in the wave function. This highlights the potential for misinterpretation in mathematical problems.

lol physics
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Hi, 2nd year physics student here

doing a past paper on quantum mechanics everything is going nice and dandy then this happens..

question: prove that the normalisation constant A is given by A = [tex]\frac{1}{2^1^/^2}[/tex] ([tex]\frac{a}{\pi}[/tex])^1/4

ok seems fairly straight forward but i keep getting this A = [tex]\frac{1}{2^1^/^2 (a*\pi)^1^/^4}[/tex]

wave function ------> [tex]\Psi[/tex] (x,t) = A*2*[a*x*(e^-ax^2/2)(e^-3/2iwt)

useful integral: Inegration from - infinity to + infinity of x[tex]^{2}[/tex]*e[tex]^{-C}[/tex][tex]^{x^{}2}[/tex] dx = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ([tex]\frac{\pi}{C^{3}}[/tex])[tex]^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]

any flawless mathematicians out there..?
 
Last edited:
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Welcome to Physics Forums :smile:

lol physics said:
any flawless mathematicians out there..?
Nope ... there's no such thing!

Can you show the integral you set up to calculate A?
 
any one?
 
If you show more steps of your work, we might be able to spot where you went wrong.
 
you have the wave function, you have what the answer should be and you have the identity integral needed to solve this. I gave you the answer i kept receiving, my friend who is a theoretical physicist also received the same answer, if you do in fact obtain the right answer can you show a step by step of how it was obtained, if you received the same answer as us then there may be a problem with the actual question.
 
could have something to do with odd functions and even functions. I got a problem like this. It ended up being 0 because it was an odd function and with even functions you double.
 
lol physics, I agree that A is proportional to a-1/4
 
Last edited:
If you think the problem is wrong, why don't you just plug in their normalization constant and see if you get 1? If you don't get 1, then there is probably something wrong.
 
found the problem sorry, i was reading the question wrongly. you can use this thread as an example of why you should read questions properly, i thought the square root was covering the whole wave function but it was only covering one of the constants. thank you for all your help.
 

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