Why is 'its' spelled differently than other possessive forms?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the spelling of the possessive form "its" compared to other possessive forms in English, particularly focusing on the absence of an apostrophe. Participants explore the historical and grammatical reasons behind this distinction, as well as related issues of possessive forms in English and other languages.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants find it odd that "its" is spelled without an apostrophe, unlike other possessive forms such as "dog's" or "one's".
  • One viewpoint suggests that the lack of an apostrophe helps avoid confusion with the contraction "it's".
  • Another participant argues that the possessive apostrophe was historically added by Renaissance grammarians who misunderstood its origins.
  • Some participants note that other possessive pronouns like "yours", "his", "hers", "theirs", and "whose" also do not use apostrophes, suggesting a pattern in English pronouns.
  • There is a discussion about the potential confusion in English possessive forms, particularly when distinguishing between singular and plural genitives.
  • One participant raises the issue of how to correctly form possessives for names ending in 's', providing examples and noting that different style guides may have varying rules.
  • Another participant mentions that while some German words do add -s for plural and genitive forms, English uniquely requires different spellings for pronounced endings.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the historical reasons for the apostrophe in possessives, the rules for possessives of names ending in 's', and the overall logic behind English possessive forms. No consensus is reached on these points.

Contextual Notes

Participants acknowledge that there are various style guides with differing opinions on possessive forms, particularly regarding names ending in 's'. The discussion highlights the complexity and lack of uniformity in English grammar rules.

Dremmer
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its, the possessive of "it".

Anyone else find it funny and odd that it's (no pun intended) spelled "its" with no apostrophe? Other possessive forms like "one's", "dog's" etc. are spelled with an apostrophe before the "s".
 
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So as not to confuse it with the "it is" contraction. English was designed by a commiittee before the age of computers or commuters.
 


jedishrfu said:
English was designed by a commiittee before the age of computers or commuters.
That would be French or Spanish. English? We don't need no stinkin' committee.
 


D H said:
That would be French or Spanish. English? We don't need no stinkin' committee.

The pronounciation variability in endings like -ough ought to tell you otherwise..
 


That it's the wrong way round is the way I remember which way is right.
 


Ibix said:
That it's the wrong way round is the way I remember which way is right.
I use the short and sweet "it's a contraction."
 


There are also no apostrophes in "yours", "his", "hers", "theirs", and "whose". Notice that they are all pronouns.

The truth is, there is no logical reason for possessives like "dog's" to carry an apostrophe in the first place. Historically, there was none. Compare to modern German which forms genitives with -s and no apostrophe; there is no confusion.

The apostrophe was added by Renaissance grammarians who mistakenly believed that the possessive ending was derived from "his", as in "the dog his = the dog's". However, this grammatical construction never existed in English.
 


Ben Niehoff said:
The truth is, there is no logical reason for possessives like "dog's" to carry an apostrophe in the first place. Historically, there was none. Compare to modern German which forms genitives with -s and no apostrophe; there is no confusion.

The apostrophe was added by Renaissance grammarians who mistakenly believed that the possessive ending was derived from "his", as in "the dog his = the dog's". However, this grammatical construction never existed in English.

There is no confusion in German because, unlike English, plurals are not formed by adding "s".

There is potential confusion in English when "genitive or plural" is followed by word that could be either a noun or a verb, for example "the priests stole". (Can't think of a better example right now...)

Without an apostrophe, there is also confusion between genitive singular (priest's) and genitive plural (priests').

But you are right that the apostrophe was not used in English in the 16th and early 17th century.
 
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Please, just don't use its' (insert pet peeve smiley here).
 
  • #10


lisab said:
Please, just don't use its' (insert pet peeve smiley here).

:smile:
I can't say as I ever saw that one.
 
  • #11


AlephZero said:
There is no confusion in German because, unlike English, plurals are not formed by adding "s".

Mostly true, but some German words do add -s to make both the plural and the genitive, such as Auto, Autos.

But aside from genitive vs. plural, German has other case endings that are sometimes identical, especially in the feminine gender. They are always spelled the same, and you can tell them apart from context.

And Latin, which is even more strongly dependent on its word endings, has several examples of different endings being the same. You'll probably find the same in every natural inflected language; not every inflection is absolutely unique. English is the only example I know of that feels the need to spell two endings differently when they are pronounced the same.
 
  • #12


Ben Niehoff said:
Mostly true, but some German words do add -s to make both the plural and the genitive, such as Auto, Autos.

But aside from genitive vs. plural, German has other case endings that are sometimes identical, especially in the feminine gender. They are always spelled the same, and you can tell them apart from context.

And Latin, which is even more strongly dependent on its word endings, has several examples of different endings being the same. You'll probably find the same in every natural inflected language; not every inflection is absolutely unique. English is the only example I know of that feels the need to spell two endings differently when they are pronounced the same.

Yeah, the "er" ending in "nicer" and "maker" are spelled the same despite the different function, likewise the "s" ending in "detects" and "cars".
 
  • #13


Dremmer said:
likewise the "s" ending in "detects" and "cars".

Of course, if you combine those two, the proper ending is a speeding ticket.
 
  • #14


Something else that seems to cause a lot of confusion:

How does one refer to an object that belongs to someone whose name ends with an 's'?

Example: A bat belonging to a person named Carlos.

Correct: Carlos's bat. (One appends the apostrophe AND the 's' to the end of the name)

Incorrect: Carlo's bat. (One just changed Carlos's name to Carlo)

Also Incorrect: Carlos' bat. (One just indicated there are multiple people named Carlos, perhaps even cloned, who all claim possession of the bat)
 
  • #15


Dembadon said:
Also Incorrect: Carlos' bat. (One just indicated there are multiple people named Carlos, perhaps even cloned, who all claim possession of the bat)

Multiple people named Carlo, I believe. Several Carloses claiming bat would be "Carloses' bat." [/nitpicking]
 
  • #16


Dembadon said:
Something else that seems to cause a lot of confusion:

How does one refer to an object that belongs to someone whose name ends with an 's'?

Example: A bat belonging to a person named Carlos.

Correct: Carlos's bat. (One appends the apostrophe AND the 's' to the end of the name)

Incorrect: Carlo's bat. (One just changed Carlos's name to Carlo)

Also Incorrect: Carlos' bat. (One just indicated there are multiple people named Carlos, perhaps even cloned, who all claim possession of the bat)
That last one would be Carloses' bat, or Carloses's bat, depending on whose set of rules one follows.

Regarding Carlos' versus Carlos's, different guides have different opinions. There is no single authority that dictates what is / is not proper English. This happens to be one of those places where different style guides disagree, but consensus does appear to be moving toward Carlos's.
 
  • #17


Chi Meson said:
Multiple people named Carlo, I believe. Several Carloses claiming bat would be "Carloses' bat." [/nitpicking]

D H said:
That last one would be Carloses' bat, or Carloses's bat, depending on whose set of rules one follows.

Regarding Carlos' versus Carlos's, different guides have different opinions. There is no single authority that dictates what is / is not proper English. This happens to be one of those places where different style guides disagree, but consensus does appear to be moving toward Carlos's.

Points taken.
 

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