Why is the Linearity of Expectation Used in This Equation?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the linearity of expectation in the context of a specific equation involving the expected value of a logarithmic function. Participants are exploring the conditions under which the equation holds true, particularly focusing on the distribution of the random variables involved.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the derivation of the equation \(\sum^{n}_{j=1} \mathbb{E}[ \ln(1 +K_{j})] = n \mathbb{E}[ \ln(1+K_{1})]\) and seeks clarification on its validity.
  • Another participant suggests that the equation only makes sense if all \(K_j\) have the same distribution, although it may hold in more general situations by coincidence.
  • A further reply asserts that if all \(K_j\) have the same distribution, then the logarithmic transformations \(\ln(1+K_j)\) also share the same distribution, leading to identical expected values for each term in the sum.
  • Participants express uncertainty about the triviality of the argument and the conditions necessary for the equation to hold.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the equation's validity is contingent upon the distributions of the \(K_j\) variables, but there is no consensus on the broader applicability or the implications of this condition.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependence on the assumption that the random variables \(K_j\) are identically distributed, as well as the requirement for the existence of the expectations involved.

cappadonza
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Hi I'm going through some presentation material and i can't understand how the following has been derived

[tex]\sum^{n}_{j=1} \mathbb{E}[ ln(1 +K_{j})] = n \mathbb{E}[ln(1+K_{1})][/tex]

Could someone point me in the right direction on why this makes sense ?

Thanks
 
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It only makes sense if all Kj have the same distribution, although it could hold (by accident) in more general situations.
 


ok suppose all [tex]K_{j}[/tex] have exactly the same distribution, I still can see why it makes sense. why does the following hold [tex]\sum^{n}_{j=1} \mathbb{E}[ ln(1 +K_{j})] = n \mathbb{E}[ln(1+K_{1})][/tex]

maybe there is something trivial here that I'm missing but i still can't see it
 


If all the [itex]K_j[/itex] have the same distribution, so do all of the [itex]\ln (1+K_j)[/tex], and this common distribution is the same as that of [itex]\ln(1+K_1)[/itex].<br /> <br /> If they have the same distribution, and if the expectations exist, then every term in the first sum is the same.[/itex]
 

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