Why is the spin of this state equal to one?

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The discussion clarifies the spin states of a two-electron system, specifically addressing why the combined state has a total spin quantum number of s=1 and a magnetic quantum number m_s=0. The state in question is represented as [1/√2]{α(1)β(2)+α(2)β(1)}, where α(i) and β(i) denote the spin states of the electrons. The confusion arises from conflating the total spin with the z-component of the spin; the total spin is determined using the formula S^2 = (S_1)^2 + (S_2)^2 + 2 ⟨S_1·S_2⟩, yielding S^2 = 2ℏ², confirming that s=1.

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shedrick94
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I've just come across the spin states of a two electron system. There are 4 states possible and I am a little confused as to why the state below has values of s=1 m_s=0?

[1/√2]{α(1)β(2)+α(2)β(1)}

where α(i) and β(i) tell us if the particle has +ve or -ve z component of spin respectively.

I don't quite understand why s=1 as the sum of the spins for this would be (+1/2)(-1/2)+(+1/2)(-1/2)

http://www.tcm.phy.cam.ac.uk/~bds10/aqp/lec11_compressed.pdf a similar thing can be seen here on slide 10.
 
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shedrick94 said:
I don't quite understand why s=1 as the sum of the spins for this would be (+1/2)(-1/2)+(+1/2)(-1/2)
That's not correct. First, you are mixing up the total spin and the projection of the spin along z (the spin of an electron is always 1/2, never -1/2).

Second, what is the result of ##\hat{S} \alpha## or ##\hat{S} \beta##?
 
What you calculated, is not the sum of the spins but the sum of the z-component of the spins. The z-component can take on the values -1, 0, 1 for a particle with spin 1.
 
Do hunds rules not say that the S= sum of all m_s values?
 
Why is the spin of this state s=1 then? What am I missing?
 
If we let \vec{S} = \vec{S_1} + \vec{S_2}, where \vec{S} is the total spin, and \vec{S_1} and \vec{S_2} are the spins of the two electrons, then we have:

S^2 = (S_1)^2 + (S_2)^2 + 2 \vec{S_1} \cdot \vec{S_2}

If you let this operator act on the state, you will find that yields value 2 \hbar^2, which is consistent with an angular momentum of 1 \hbar. (Remember, the total angular momentum is quantized to have value S^2 = s(s+1) \hbar^2, so S^2 = 2 \hbar^2 \Rightarrow s = 1)
 
shedrick94 said:
Do hunds rules not say that the S= sum of all m_s values?

No, you have the total spin, \vec{S}, which has components S_x, S_y, S_z. You have the individual particle spins \vec{S_1} and \vec{S_2}, which have components (S_1)_x, (S_1)_y, (S_1)_z, (S_2)_x, (S_2)_y, (S_2)_z.

It is true that S_z = (S_1)_z + (S_2)_z = 0, but that doesn't imply that S_x and S_y are zero.
 

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