Why is there a 2 in this fraction problem?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a fraction problem involving the subtraction of mixed numbers: 8 5/6 - 1 1/3. Participants are trying to understand the reasoning behind rewriting 1/3 as 2/6 in the context of this problem.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks clarification on how the fraction 1/3 was rewritten as 2/6 in the problem.
  • Another participant states that the problem can be interpreted in two ways, suggesting that the conversion may be a typo.
  • A participant explains that multiplying the numerator and denominator of a fraction by the same number does not change its value, thus 1/3 is equivalent to 2/6.
  • Another participant proposes that any fraction can be multiplied by n/n (where n is not zero) to demonstrate equivalence, using the example of 1/3 being rewritten as 2/6.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the conversion from 1/3 to 2/6 is necessary or correct, with some suggesting it may be a typo while others defend the mathematical reasoning behind the conversion.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the equivalence of fractions relies on the multiplication of both the numerator and denominator, which may not be universally understood by all contributors.

jim1174
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I need some help with this fraction problem. 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 you Need to rewrite the problem as 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 where did the two come from ?
 
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Can you show the whole text of this problem and supposed solution?
 
The problem is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 the answer is 8 5/6 - 1 2/6 answer 7 1/2 I just want to know how they got the 2 in 2/6
 
jim1174 said:
The problem is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 the answer is 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 answer 7 1/2
The expression is either 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 or 8 5/6 - 1 2/3. The two are not the same.

Since the answer is 7 1/2, the problem must have been 8 5/6 - 1 1/3. The only explanation for 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 is that it's a typo.

Edit: Jim, I didn't notice that you revised what you wrote in your later post. 1 1/3 is the same as 1 2/6.
 
They changed 1/3 to 2/6 by multiplying the top and bottom of the fraction 1/3 by the number 2.
 
The question is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 you are supposed to re write the problem as 8 5/6 - 1 2/6 what I want to know is when they changed the 1/3 to 2/6 where did the two come from
 
You can multiply the top of a fraction by any number so long as you multiply the bottom of that fraction by the same AND THIS DOESN'T CHANGE THE VALUE of that fraction.

So 1/3 is equivalent to 2/6 in all regards.

QUESTION: Would you prefer 1 slice of a pie after the pie was cut up into 3 equal pieces, or
would you prefer 2 slices of the same pie after it had been cut into 6 pieces?

ANS: there is no difference!

The decision to convert the denominator into a 6 was so that it matched the denominator of the first fraction in the problem.
 
Last edited:
If I may propose a different way of seeing it: any number multiplied by 1 is the same number. Therefore, you can always multiply any fraction by ##n/n## (provided ##n## is not zero!):

$$
\frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{3} \times 1 = \frac{1}{3} \times \frac{2}{2} = \frac{2}{6}
$$
 

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