MHB Why is this Maclaurin series incorrect?

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The discussion centers on finding the Maclaurin series for the function f(x) = x^2e^x. The user initially attempts to express the series using the known series for e^x but questions the validity of their approach. It is confirmed that the manipulation is correct, leading to the expression x^2e^x = ∑(n=0 to ∞) (x^(n+2)/n!). This result is indeed a Maclaurin series, as it is expanded around the point x=0. The clarification emphasizes the distinction between Maclaurin and Taylor series.
tmt1
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I need to find the Maclaurin series for

$$f(x) = x^2e^x$$

I know

$$e^x = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}$$

So, why can't I do

$$x^2 e^x =x^2 \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!} = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^2 x^n}{n!} $$
 
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You can! I'd say you could combine the exponents in your final result:
$$x^2e^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{n+2}}{n!}.$$
Now this is a Maclaurin series, not a Taylor series expanded at a point other than $0$, right?
 
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