The rate of working of the Reynolds Stress can be written as:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

where u_{i}is the fluctuating velocity and Ū_{i}is the time-averaged velocity.

It is stated in the textbook that, if we integrate the above equation over a closed volume V, the divergence term on the left integrates to zerosince τWhat does this mean?^{R}_{ij}(Reynolds Stress) vanishes on the boundary.

The context is that, with this being zero, the author proves thatglobally,the integral over the closed volume of the two terms on the right must balance. Maybe if I understood the latter statement, I would understand this last sentence...?

Thanks

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# Why Reynolds Stress vanishes on boundary of closed volume?

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